๐ฅ NEET PG Final Revision Series
NEET PG 2026 is almost here. This special series contains 500 high-yield practice MCQs designed for rapid final revision.
How to use this series
✅ Try answering before seeing the key.
✅ Mark questions you get wrong.
✅ Revise the underlying concept—not just the answer.
✅ Pay special attention to ๐ฅ High-Yield questions.
๐ฉบ MEDICINE
Q1. ๐ฅ
A 58-year-old man presents with severe retrosternal chest pain. ECG shows ST elevation in leads II, III and aVF. Which coronary artery is most commonly involved?
A. Left anterior descending artery
B. Right coronary artery
C. Left main coronary artery
D. First diagonal artery
Answer: B. Right coronary artery
๐ก Exam Pearl: II, III, aVF → inferior-wall MI → commonly RCA.
Q2.
ST elevation in leads V1–V4 most strongly suggests:
A. Inferior-wall MI
B. Posterior-wall MI
C. Anterior-wall MI
D. Lateral-wall MI
Answer: C. Anterior-wall MI
๐ก LAD occlusion is an important cause.
Q3. ๐ฅ
A patient with chronic kidney disease develops muscle weakness. ECG shows tall, tented T waves. The most likely abnormality is:
A. Hypokalaemia
B. Hyperkalaemia
C. Hypercalcaemia
D. Hypernatraemia
Answer: B. Hyperkalaemia
Q4.
Which ECG finding is classically associated with hypokalaemia?
A. Peaked T wave
B. U wave
C. Short QT interval
D. ST elevation
Answer: B. U wave
Q5. ๐ฅ
The most common cause of hyperthyroidism is:
A. Toxic adenoma
B. Graves disease
C. Subacute thyroiditis
D. Pituitary adenoma
Answer: B. Graves disease
Q6.
Which antibody is most closely associated with Graves disease?
A. Anti-dsDNA
B. Anti-CCP
C. TSH-receptor stimulating antibody
D. Anti-centromere antibody
Answer: C. TSH-receptor stimulating antibody
Q7.
Primary hypothyroidism usually produces:
A. ↓TSH, ↓T4
B. ↑TSH, ↓T4
C. ↑TSH, ↑T4
D. ↓TSH, ↑T4
Answer: B. ↑TSH, ↓T4
Q8. ๐ฅ
A diabetic patient has abdominal pain, dehydration, Kussmaul breathing and fruity-smelling breath. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Hypoglycaemia
B. Diabetic ketoacidosis
C. Lactic acidosis only
D. Diabetes insipidus
Answer: B. Diabetic ketoacidosis
Q9.
Kussmaul breathing is typically seen as compensation for:
A. Respiratory alkalosis
B. Metabolic acidosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis
Answer: B. Metabolic acidosis
Q10. ๐ฅ
The earliest clinically detectable evidence of diabetic nephropathy is:
A. Gross proteinuria
B. Elevated serum creatinine
C. Moderately increased albuminuria
D. Renal failure
Answer: C. Moderately increased albuminuria
Q11.
Which investigation reflects average glycaemic control over approximately the previous 2–3 months?
A. Fasting glucose
B. HbA1c
C. Urinary glucose
D. Random insulin
Answer: B. HbA1c
Q12.
The most common type of stroke is:
A. Ischaemic stroke
B. Intracerebral haemorrhage
C. Subarachnoid haemorrhage
D. Subdural haemorrhage
Answer: A. Ischaemic stroke
Q13. ๐ฅ
A patient develops sudden right-sided weakness and aphasia. Which cerebral hemisphere is most likely affected?
A. Right
B. Left
C. Cerebellar
D. Occipital only
Answer: B. Left
Q14.
An irregularly irregular pulse with absent discrete P waves is characteristic of:
A. Atrial fibrillation
B. Ventricular fibrillation
C. First-degree heart block
D. Sinus bradycardia
Answer: A. Atrial fibrillation
Q15. ๐ฅ
Which electrolyte disturbance is a classic complication of prolonged vomiting?
A. Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis
B. Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. High-anion-gap acidosis
Answer: B. Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis
❤️ CARDIO-RESPIRATORY RAPID REVISION
Q16.
The most characteristic heart sound associated with mitral stenosis is:
A. Opening snap
B. Ejection click
C. Wide fixed S2
D. Pericardial knock
Answer: A. Opening snap
Q17.
A pansystolic murmur heard best at the apex and radiating toward the axilla suggests:
A. Mitral stenosis
B. Mitral regurgitation
C. Aortic stenosis
D. Pulmonary stenosis
Answer: B. Mitral regurgitation
Q18. ๐ฅ
A harsh ejection systolic murmur radiating to the carotids is characteristic of:
A. Mitral regurgitation
B. Aortic stenosis
C. VSD
D. PDA
Answer: B. Aortic stenosis
Q19.
The characteristic pulse of aortic regurgitation is:
A. Pulsus paradoxus
B. Water-hammer pulse
C. Pulsus alternans
D. Slow-rising pulse
Answer: B. Water-hammer pulse
Q20. ๐ฅ
The classic triad of cardiac tamponade—hypotension, raised JVP and muffled heart sounds—is called:
A. Virchow triad
B. Beck triad
C. Charcot triad
D. Cushing triad
Answer: B. Beck triad
๐ฉธ PATHOLOGY & HAEMATOLOGY
Q21. ๐ฅ
The Philadelphia chromosome is classically associated with:
A. AML
B. CML
C. CLL
D. Multiple myeloma
Answer: B. CML
๐ก Memory: t(9;22) → BCR-ABL.
Q22.
Auer rods are characteristically seen in:
A. AML
B. CLL
C. Multiple myeloma
D. Iron-deficiency anaemia
Answer: A. AML
Q23. ๐ฅ
Reed-Sternberg cells are associated with:
A. Burkitt lymphoma
B. Hodgkin lymphoma
C. Multiple myeloma
D. CML
Answer: B. Hodgkin lymphoma
Q24.
“Starry-sky” appearance is classically associated with:
A. Follicular lymphoma
B. Burkitt lymphoma
C. Hodgkin lymphoma
D. CLL
Answer: B. Burkitt lymphoma
Q25. ๐ฅ
Burkitt lymphoma is classically associated with:
A. t(9;22)
B. t(8;14)
C. t(14;18)
D. t(15;17)
Answer: B. t(8;14)
Q26.
t(15;17) is associated with:
A. Acute promyelocytic leukaemia
B. CML
C. Burkitt lymphoma
D. Follicular lymphoma
Answer: A. Acute promyelocytic leukaemia
Q27.
The most common nutritional anaemia worldwide is:
A. Vitamin B12 deficiency
B. Iron-deficiency anaemia
C. Folate deficiency
D. Sideroblastic anaemia
Answer: B. Iron-deficiency anaemia
Q28. ๐ฅ
Iron-deficiency anaemia typically shows:
A. Increased ferritin
B. Decreased TIBC
C. Decreased ferritin
D. Increased transferrin saturation
Answer: C. Decreased ferritin
Q29.
Hypersegmented neutrophils are classically associated with:
A. Iron deficiency
B. Megaloblastic anaemia
C. Thalassaemia trait
D. Acute blood loss
Answer: B. Megaloblastic anaemia
Q30. ๐ฅ
Bence Jones proteins are associated with:
A. Hodgkin lymphoma
B. Multiple myeloma
C. CML
D. Polycythaemia vera
Answer: B. Multiple myeloma
๐ PHARMACOLOGY
Q31. ๐ฅ
Which anti-tubercular drug commonly causes orange-red discoloration of body fluids?
A. Isoniazid
B. Rifampicin
C. Ethambutol
D. Pyrazinamide
Answer: B. Rifampicin
Q32.
Optic neuritis with red-green colour-vision impairment is a well-known adverse effect of:
A. Ethambutol
B. Rifampicin
C. Isoniazid
D. Streptomycin
Answer: A. Ethambutol
Q33. ๐ฅ
Peripheral neuropathy caused by isoniazid can be prevented with:
A. Pyridoxine
B. Folic acid
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D
Answer: A. Pyridoxine
Q34.
Which anti-TB drug is strongly associated with hyperuricaemia?
A. Pyrazinamide
B. Ethambutol
C. Rifampicin
D. Isoniazid
Answer: A. Pyrazinamide
Q35. ๐ฅ
The antidote for paracetamol poisoning is:
A. Naloxone
B. Atropine
C. N-acetylcysteine
D. Flumazenil
Answer: C. N-acetylcysteine
Q36.
The antidote used in opioid overdose is:
A. Naloxone
B. Pralidoxime
C. Atropine
D. Vitamin K
Answer: A. Naloxone
Q37. ๐ฅ
Organophosphate poisoning is treated with:
A. Atropine + pralidoxime
B. Naloxone + atropine
C. Flumazenil + atropine
D. Vitamin K + pralidoxime
Answer: A. Atropine + pralidoxime
Q38.
Dry cough associated with ACE inhibitors is related primarily to accumulation of:
A. Dopamine
B. Bradykinin
C. Acetylcholine
D. Histamine only
Answer: B. Bradykinin
Q39.
Warfarin acts by inhibiting:
A. Vitamin K epoxide reductase
B. Thrombin directly
C. Platelet COX irreversibly
D. Factor Xa directly
Answer: A. Vitamin K epoxide reductase
Q40. ๐ฅ
Unfractionated heparin therapy is conventionally monitored using:
A. Bleeding time
B. aPTT
C. INR
D. Platelet count alone
Answer: B. aPTT
๐ฆ MICROBIOLOGY
Q41.
The causative organism of tuberculosis is:
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Klebsiella pneumoniae
Answer: A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Q42. ๐ฅ
The stain classically used to demonstrate acid-fast bacilli is:
A. Gram stain
B. Ziehl-Neelsen stain
C. Albert stain
D. India ink
Answer: B. Ziehl-Neelsen stain
Q43.
India ink preparation has classically been used for demonstration of:
A. Cryptococcus neoformans
B. Candida albicans
C. Aspergillus fumigatus
D. Pneumocystis jirovecii
Answer: A. Cryptococcus neoformans
Q44. ๐ฅ
Pseudomembranous colitis after antibiotic use is most strongly associated with:
A. Clostridioides difficile
B. Clostridium tetani
C. Staphylococcus epidermidis
D. Bacillus anthracis
Answer: A. Clostridioides difficile
Q45.
Tetanospasmin causes spastic paralysis mainly by blocking release of:
A. GABA and glycine
B. Dopamine
C. Serotonin
D. Glutamate only
Answer: A. GABA and glycine
Q46. ๐ฅ
Descending flaccid paralysis after consumption of improperly preserved food suggests:
A. Tetanus
B. Botulism
C. Rabies
D. Diphtheria
Answer: B. Botulism
Q47.
Negri bodies are associated with:
A. Rabies
B. Poliomyelitis
C. Measles
D. Dengue
Answer: A. Rabies
Q48.
“School of fish” arrangement is classically associated with:
A. Haemophilus ducreyi
B. Vibrio cholerae
C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D. Salmonella Typhi
Answer: A. Haemophilus ducreyi
Q49. ๐ฅ
Which organism is strongly associated with peptic ulcer disease?
A. Helicobacter pylori
B. E. coli
C. Shigella dysenteriae
D. Vibrio cholerae
Answer: A. Helicobacter pylori
Q50.
Which hepatitis virus is a DNA virus?
A. HAV
B. HBV
C. HCV
D. HEV
Answer: B. HBV
๐คฐ OBSTETRICS & GYNAECOLOGY
Q51. ๐ฅ
The most common cause of postpartum haemorrhage is:
A. Uterine atony
B. Retained placenta in every case
C. Cervical cancer
D. Uterine inversion
Answer: A. Uterine atony
๐ก Remember the 4 Ts: Tone, Trauma, Tissue, Thrombin.
Q52.
The first-line uterotonic commonly used for prevention/management of uterine-atony-related PPH is:
A. Oxytocin
B. Methotrexate
C. Magnesium sulphate
D. Progesterone
Answer: A. Oxytocin
Q53. ๐ฅ
The drug of choice for prevention and treatment of seizures in severe pre-eclampsia/eclampsia is:
A. Diazepam routinely
B. Magnesium sulphate
C. Phenytoin routinely
D. Mannitol
Answer: B. Magnesium sulphate
Q54.
The definitive treatment of eclampsia after maternal stabilisation is:
A. Indefinite anticonvulsant therapy
B. Delivery
C. Bed rest until term in all patients
D. Oral iron therapy
Answer: B. Delivery
Q55. ๐ฅ
Painless vaginal bleeding in late pregnancy classically suggests:
A. Placental abruption
B. Placenta previa
C. Uterine rupture
D. Ectopic pregnancy
Answer: B. Placenta previa
Q56.
Painful bleeding with a tender, tense uterus is more suggestive of:
A. Placenta previa
B. Placental abruption
C. Hydatidiform mole
D. Cervical polyp
Answer: B. Placental abruption
Q57.
The most common site of ectopic pregnancy is:
A. Ampulla
B. Cervix
C. Ovary
D. Abdominal cavity
Answer: A. Ampulla
Q58. ๐ฅ
The most important oncogenic HPV types associated with cervical carcinoma include:
A. 1 and 2
B. 6 and 11 only
C. 16 and 18
D. 40 and 41
Answer: C. 16 and 18
Q59.
Which tumour marker is particularly associated with epithelial ovarian cancer and commonly used in its assessment/follow-up?
A. CA-125
B. PSA
C. Calcitonin
D. Troponin
Answer: A. CA-125
Q60.
A complete hydatidiform mole classically has:
A. A viable normal fetus
B. No fetal tissue
C. Always normal hCG
D. Normal placental morphology
Answer: B. No fetal tissue
๐ช SURGERY
Q61. ๐ฅ
The most common type of shock following major acute blood loss is:
A. Cardiogenic
B. Hypovolaemic
C. Neurogenic
D. Anaphylactic
Answer: B. Hypovolaemic
Q62.
A trauma patient is hypotensive, tachycardic, cold and clammy. The most likely shock category is:
A. Hypovolaemic shock
B. Neurogenic shock
C. Septic shock only
D. Cardiogenic shock necessarily
Answer: A. Hypovolaemic shock
Q63. ๐ฅ
The Glasgow Coma Scale assesses:
A. Eye, verbal and motor responses
B. Hearing, speech and gait
C. Pulse, BP and respiration
D. Memory, calculation and language
Answer: A. Eye, verbal and motor responses
Q64.
Maximum possible Glasgow Coma Scale score is:
A. 10
B. 12
C. 15
D. 20
Answer: C. 15
Q65.
A biconvex/lentiform hyperdense collection on CT following head trauma suggests:
A. Subdural haematoma
B. Epidural haematoma
C. Subarachnoid haemorrhage
D. Diffuse axonal injury
Answer: B. Epidural haematoma
Q66. ๐ฅ
The artery classically injured in an epidural haematoma associated with temporal bone fracture is:
A. Middle meningeal artery
B. Basilar artery
C. Anterior cerebral artery
D. Vertebral artery
Answer: A. Middle meningeal artery
Q67.
A crescent-shaped intracranial collection on CT is characteristic of:
A. Epidural haematoma
B. Subdural haematoma
C. Pituitary adenoma
D. Meningioma
Answer: B. Subdural haematoma
Q68. ๐ฅ
The most common site of breast carcinoma is:
A. Upper outer quadrant
B. Lower inner quadrant
C. Lower outer quadrant
D. Central region
Answer: A. Upper outer quadrant
Q69.
Peau d'orange in carcinoma breast results primarily from:
A. Lymphatic obstruction
B. Arterial thrombosis
C. Bone metastasis
D. Hypercalcaemia
Answer: A. Lymphatic obstruction
Q70. ๐ฅ
A patient with sudden severe abdominal pain, board-like rigidity and free gas under the diaphragm most likely has:
A. Perforated hollow viscus
B. Uncomplicated gastritis
C. IBS
D. Simple constipation
Answer: A. Perforated hollow viscus
๐ง PAEDIATRICS
Q71.
The most common congenital heart disease overall is:
A. VSD
B. Tetralogy of Fallot
C. Transposition of great arteries
D. Tricuspid atresia
Answer: A. VSD
Q72. ๐ฅ
The most common cyanotic congenital heart disease beyond the neonatal period is:
A. ASD
B. VSD
C. Tetralogy of Fallot
D. PDA
Answer: C. Tetralogy of Fallot
Q73.
Tetralogy of Fallot includes all EXCEPT:
A. VSD
B. Right ventricular outflow obstruction
C. Overriding aorta
D. Left ventricular hypertrophy as a defining component
Answer: D. Left ventricular hypertrophy as a defining component
Q74.
The most common cause of bronchiolitis in infants is:
A. RSV
B. EBV
C. CMV
D. Rotavirus
Answer: A. RSV
Q75. ๐ฅ
A child with barking cough and inspiratory stridor most likely has:
A. Croup
B. Bronchiolitis
C. Nephrotic syndrome
D. Rheumatic fever
Answer: A. Croup
๐ง ANATOMY
Q76. ๐ฅ
Injury to the upper trunk of the brachial plexus (C5–C6) causes:
A. Klumpke palsy
B. Erb palsy
C. Bell palsy
D. Horner syndrome alone
Answer: B. Erb palsy
Q77.
Klumpke palsy predominantly involves:
A. C1–C2
B. C5–C6
C. C8–T1
D. L4–L5
Answer: C. C8–T1
Q78.
The nerve most commonly injured in fracture of the surgical neck of humerus is:
A. Axillary nerve
B. Ulnar nerve
C. Median nerve
D. Musculocutaneous nerve
Answer: A. Axillary nerve
Q79. ๐ฅ
A fracture of the midshaft of the humerus may injure:
A. Radial nerve
B. Facial nerve
C. Femoral nerve
D. Obturator nerve
Answer: A. Radial nerve
Q80.
The cranial nerve that supplies the lateral rectus muscle is:
A. III
B. IV
C. VI
D. VII
Answer: C. VI
๐ก LR6 SO4, all others III.
๐ซ PHYSIOLOGY
Q81.
The normal pacemaker of the heart is:
A. AV node
B. SA node
C. Purkinje system
D. Bundle of His
Answer: B. SA node
Q82. ๐ฅ
The major physiological stimulus for erythropoietin secretion is:
A. Hyperoxia
B. Renal tissue hypoxia
C. Hyperglycaemia
D. Hypercalcaemia
Answer: B. Renal tissue hypoxia
Q83.
Erythropoietin is produced predominantly by:
A. Kidney
B. Pancreas
C. Thyroid
D. Spleen
Answer: A. Kidney
Q84.
Pulmonary surfactant is produced by:
A. Type I pneumocytes
B. Type II pneumocytes
C. Alveolar macrophages
D. Goblet cells
Answer: B. Type II pneumocytes
Q85. ๐ฅ
Surfactant primarily:
A. Increases alveolar surface tension
B. Decreases alveolar surface tension
C. Prevents pulmonary blood flow
D. Increases airway mucus
Answer: B. Decreases alveolar surface tension
๐งฌ BIOCHEMISTRY
Q86.
The rate-limiting enzyme of glycolysis is:
A. Hexokinase
B. Phosphofructokinase-1
C. Pyruvate kinase
D. Lactate dehydrogenase
Answer: B. Phosphofructokinase-1
Q87. ๐ฅ
The rate-limiting enzyme of cholesterol synthesis is:
A. HMG-CoA reductase
B. Lipoprotein lipase
C. Hexokinase
D. Pyruvate carboxylase
Answer: A. HMG-CoA reductase
Q88.
Phenylketonuria most commonly results from deficiency of:
A. Phenylalanine hydroxylase
B. Tyrosinase
C. Homogentisate oxidase
D. Branched-chain ฮฑ-ketoacid dehydrogenase
Answer: A. Phenylalanine hydroxylase
Q89.
Alkaptonuria is caused by deficiency of:
A. Homogentisate oxidase
B. Phenylalanine hydroxylase
C. Tyrosinase
D. Galactokinase
Answer: A. Homogentisate oxidase
Q90. ๐ฅ
Maple syrup urine disease involves deficiency of:
A. Branched-chain ฮฑ-ketoacid dehydrogenase
B. Homogentisate oxidase
C. Glucose-6-phosphatase
D. HGPRT
Answer: A. Branched-chain ฮฑ-ketoacid dehydrogenase
๐️ ENT + OPHTHALMOLOGY
Q91.
The most common cause of reversible blindness worldwide is:
A. Cataract
B. Retinoblastoma
C. Optic neuritis
D. Retinal detachment
Answer: A. Cataract
Q92. ๐ฅ
A painful red eye with halos around lights, corneal haze and a mid-dilated fixed pupil suggests:
A. Open-angle glaucoma
B. Acute angle-closure glaucoma
C. Cataract
D. Retinitis pigmentosa
Answer: B. Acute angle-closure glaucoma
Q93.
The characteristic field defect in advanced glaucoma is:
A. Central scotoma only
B. Progressive peripheral visual-field loss
C. Bitemporal hemianopia
D. Homonymous hemianopia
Answer: B. Progressive peripheral visual-field loss
Q94.
The most common site of anterior epistaxis is:
A. Kiesselbach area
B. Cavernous sinus
C. Mastoid antrum
D. Eustachian tube
Answer: A. Kiesselbach area
Q95. ๐ฅ
Conductive hearing loss typically shows:
A. Rinne positive with air conduction better than bone conduction in the affected ear
B. Rinne negative in the affected ear
C. No relationship to Rinne testing
D. Complete absence of cochlear function
Answer: B. Rinne negative in the affected ear
๐ PSM / COMMUNITY MEDICINE
Q96. ๐ฅ
Sensitivity of a screening test refers to its ability to correctly identify:
A. People without disease
B. People with disease
C. False positives only
D. Exposure status only
Answer: B. People with disease
๐ก Memory: SnNout – a highly Sensitive test, when Negative, helps rule OUT.
Q97.
Specificity refers to the ability of a test to correctly identify:
A. Diseased individuals
B. Non-diseased individuals
C. Incidence
D. Prevalence
Answer: B. Non-diseased individuals
๐ก Memory: SpPin – a highly Specific test, when Positive, helps rule IN.
Q98. ๐ฅ
Incidence primarily measures:
A. All existing cases
B. New cases occurring over a specified period
C. Deaths only
D. Disability only
Answer: B. New cases occurring over a specified period
Q99.
Prevalence refers to:
A. New cases only
B. Existing cases in a population at a specified time/over a specified period
C. Deaths due to disease only
D. Birth rate
Answer: B. Existing cases in a population at a specified time/over a specified period
Q100. ๐ฅ๐ฅ๐ฅ
Which study design is generally considered the strongest primary study design for evaluating the efficacy of a therapeutic intervention when ethical and feasible?
A. Case report
B. Cross-sectional study
C. Randomised controlled trial
D. Ecological study
Answer: C. Randomised controlled trial
⚡ 100-QUESTION RAPID ANSWER KEY
1–10: B, C, B, B, B, C, B, B, B, C
11–20: B, A, B, A, B, A, B, B, B, B
21–30: B, A, B, B, B, A, B, C, B, B
31–40: B, A, A, A, C, A, A, B, A, B
41–50: A, B, A, A, A, B, A, A, A, B
51–60: A, A, B, B, B, B, A, C, A, B
61–70: B, A, A, C, B, A, B, A, A, A
71–80: A, C, D, A, A, B, C, A, A, C
81–90: B, B, A, B, B, B, A, A, A, A
91–100: A, B, B, A, B, B, B, B, B, C
๐ฏ MUST-REVISE FROM PART 1
Before leaving this page, make sure you can recall:
๐ฅ MI ECG territories
๐ฅ Hyperkalaemia ECG changes
๐ฅ DKA and acid-base disorders
๐ฅ Thyroid function patterns
๐ฅ CML – t(9;22)
๐ฅ Burkitt – t(8;14)
๐ฅ APL – t(15;17)
๐ฅ Anti-TB adverse effects
๐ฅ Common antidotes
๐ฅ PPH – 4 Ts
๐ฅ Eclampsia – MgSO₄
๐ฅ Placenta previa vs abruption
๐ฅ Epidural vs subdural haematoma
๐ฅ Brachial plexus injuries
๐ฅ Rate-limiting enzymes
๐ฅ Sensitivity vs specificity
๐ฅ Incidence vs prevalence
๐ NEET PG 2026 Final Revision Challenge
Completed: 100 / 500 Questions
⬜ Part 1 – Q1–100 ✅
⬜ Part 2 – Q101–200
⬜ Part 3 – Q201–300
⬜ Part 4 – Q301–400
⬜ Part 5 – Q401–500
Target: Complete all 500 before NEET PG