Showing posts with label deputy collector study materials. Show all posts
Showing posts with label deputy collector study materials. Show all posts
General Knowledge : Abbreviations
A
A.A.F. – Auxiliary Air Force
A.A.O.U. – Asian Association of Open Universities
A.C.D. – Asian Co-operation Dialogue
A.D.B. – Asian Development Bank
A.D.S. – Air Defence Ship
A.E.C. – Atomic Energy Commission
A.H.Q. – Air Head Quarters; Army Head Quarters
A.I.C.C. – All India Congress Committee
A.I.D.S. – Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
A.I.R. – Annual Information Report
A.J.T. – Advanced Jet Trainer
A.N.C. – African National Council
A.P.E.C. Asia-Pacific Economic Corporation
A.P.E.D.A. – Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority
A.R.C. – Administrative Reforms Commission; Asset Reconstruction Corporation (of India)
A.S.E.A.N. – Association of South East Asian Nations
A.S.I. – Archaeological Survey of India
A.U. – African Union
A.V.E.S. – Acute Viral Encephalitic Syndrome
B
B.A.R.C. – Bhabha Atomic Research Centre
B.C.G. – Bacillus Calmette Guerin (Anti-T.B. vaccine)
BIMSTEC – Bangladesh, India, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, Thailand Economic Corporation
B.S.N.L. – Bharat Sanchar Nigam Ltd.
B.O.A.C. – British Overseas Airways Corporation
B.R.E.A.D. – Basic Research Education and Development Society
B.V.R. – Beyond Visual Range
C
C.A.B.E. – Central Advisory Board of Education
C.A.C.C.I. – Confederation of Asia-Pacific Chambers of Commerce & Industry
C.M.P. – Common Minimum Programme
C.A.D.P. – Command Area Development Programme
C.A.S. – Conditional Access System
C.C.I. – Cricket Club of India
C.D.M.A. – Code Division Multiple Access
C.H.O.G.M. – Commonwealth Heads of Government Meeting
C.I.A. – Central Intelligence Agency (U.S.A.)
C.N.G. – Compressed Natural Gas
C.N.L.U. – Chanakya National Law University
C.N.P.C. – China National Petroleum Corporation
C.S.I.R. – Council of Scientific and Industrial Research
C.S.T.O. – Collective Security Treaty Organisation
D
D.A.E. – Department of Atomic Energy
D.D.T. – Dichloro Diphenyl Trichloro-ethane
D.I.A.S. – Direct Internet Access System
D.M.R.C. – Delhi Metro Rail Corporation
D.O.A.R.T. – Deep Ocean Assessment and Reporting Technology
D.P.P. – Dabhol Power Project
D.Litt. – Doctor of Literature
D.V.C. – Damodar Valley Corporation
E
E.A.S. – East Asia Summit
E.C.I.L. – Electronics Corporation of India Limited
E.D.C.I.L. – Educational Consultants India Ltd.
E.D.I. – Educational Development Index
EDUSAT – Education Satellite
E.E.C. – Eurasian Economic Community; European Economic Community
E.E.T. – Exempt, Exempt, Taxable
E.P.I.C. – Elector’s Photo Identity Card
E.S.C.A.P. – Economic & Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (This is the new name of ECAFE)
FF.D.I. – Foreign Direct Investment
F.E.M.A. – Foreign Exchange Management Act.
F.I.C.A. – Federation of International Cricketer’s Association
F.T.A. – Free Trade Agreement
G
G.A.T.T. – General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade
G.D.P. – Gross Domestic Product
G.I.C. – General Insurance Corporation (of India)
G.I.S.T. – Global Institute of Science and Technology
G.N.P. – Gross National Product
G.U.A.M. – Georgia, Ukraine, Azerbaijan and Moldova
HH.D.F.C. – Housing Development Finance Corporation
H.U.D.C.O. – Housing and Urban Development Corporation
I
I.A.A.I. – International Airport Authority of India
I.B.S.A. – India, Brazil, South Africa
I.C.R.I.E.R. – Indian Council for Research on International Economic Relations
I.C.S.I.D. – International Centre for Settlement of Industrial Disputes
I.C.R.C. – International Committee of the Red Cross
I.C.S.S.R. – Indian Council of Scientific and Social Research
I.D.P.L. – Indian Drugs and Pharmaceuticals Limited
I.F.P.R.I. – International Food Policy Research Institute (Located in Washington)
I.F.W.J. – Indian Federation of Working Journalists
I.C.A.R. – Indian Council of Agricultural Research
I.D.A. – International Development Association
I.G.C.A.R. – Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research
I.G.M.D.P. – Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme
I.G.N.C.A. – Indira Gandhi National Centre for Arts
I.I.F.A. – International Indian Film Academy
I.M.D.T. – Illegal Migrants (Determination by Tribunals) Act, 1983
I.M.F. – International Monetary Fund
I.M.O. – Instant Money Order
I.N.S. – Indian News Paper Society
INSDOC – Indian National Scientific Documentation Centre
I.N.T.U.C. – Indian National Trade Union Congress
I.N.T.A.C.H. – Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage
I.N.X.F.A.C. – Indian Naval Extra-Fast Attact Craft
I.S.I. – Inter Services Intelligence (Pakistan)
I.S.T. – Indian Standards Time
I.S.R.O. – Indian Space Research Organisation
I.S.S.P. – Indian Scientific Satellite Project
I.T.E.R. – International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor
I.T.E.S. – Information Technology Enabled Services
I.U.C.N. – International Union for Conservation of Nature
I.U.P.E.P. – Integrated Urban Poverty Eradication Programme
J
J.V.P. – Janatha Vimukthi Peramuna
LL.I.B.O.R. – London Inter Bank Offered Rate
M
M.A.I. – Multilateral Agreement on Investment
M.C.C. – Marylebone Cricket Club
M.D.M.A. – Multi Disciplinary Monitoring Agency
M.F.A.L.A. – Marginal Farmers and Agricultural Labourers Agency
M.N.N.A. – Major Non-NATO Alley
M.R.T.P.C. – Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Commission
N
N.A.D.T. – National Authority on Drugs and Therapeutics
N.A.R.I. – National AIDS Research Institute
NATO – North Atlantic Treaty Organisation
N.B.R.A. – National Biotechnology Regulatory Authority
N.C.H.R.H. – National Council for Human Resource in Health.
N.C.A. – National Cricket Academy
N.E.A. – National Environment Authority
N.E.G.P. National E-governance Plan
N.I.F. – National Innovative Foundation
N.I.S.M. – National Institute of Securities Market
N.L.L.M. – National Legal Literacy Mission
N.M.C.C. – National Manufacturing Competitiveness Council
N.M.I.T.L.I. – New Millennium Indian Technology Leadership Initiative
N.P.T. – Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty
N.R.C. – Nuclear Regulatory Commission
N.R.E.G.A. – National Rural Employment Guarantee Act.
N.R.H.M. – National Rural Health Mission
N.R.I. – Non-Resident Indians
N.R.S.A. – National Remote Sensing Agency
N.S.C.N. – National Social Council of Nagaland
N.U.E.P.A. – National University of Educational Planning and Administration
O
O.I.C. – Overseas Indian Citizenship
O.I.G.S. – On Indian Government Service
OIL – Oil India Limited
O.N.G.C. – Oil and Natural Gas Corporation
P
P.A.C. – Public Accounts Committee; Professional Aptitude Council
P.A.N. – Permanent Account Number
P.E.S.O. – Petroleum and Explosives Safety Organisation (PESO is the changed name of Department of Explosives).
P.E.T.A. – People for the Ethical Treatment of Animals
P.F.R.D.A. – Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority
P.H.D.C.C.I. – Progress, Harmony and Development Chambers of Commerce and Industry
P.I.L. – Public Interest Litigation
P.N.R. – Passenger Numerical Record
P.O.S.C.O. – Pohang Steel Company
P.O.T.A. – Prevention of Terrorism Act
P.T.C. – Power Trading Corporation
Q
Q.I.P. – Qualified Institutional Placement
RR.A.F. – Rapid Action Force
R.S.V.P. – Repondez sil vous Plait (Fr.) reply, if you please
R.T.R.A. – Rail Tariff Regulatory Authority
SSAIL – Steel Authority of India Limited
SAPTA – South Asian Preferential Trade Agreement
S.C.O. – Shanghai Cooperation Organisation
S.C.R.A.M.J.E.T. – Supersonic Combustion Ramjet
S.E.W.A. – Self-Employed Women’s Association
S.G.R.Y. – Sampoorna Grameen Rojgar Yojana
S.G.S.Y. – Swarnjayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana
S.M.S. – Short Message Service; Subscriber Management System
SNIPES – Society for the National Institutes of Physical Education and Sports
S.W.A.P.O. – South-West African People’s Organization
TTELCO – Tata Engineering and Locomotive Company
T.E.R.C. – Trade and Economic Relations Committee
T.E.R.L.S. – Thumba Equatorial Rocket Launching Station
T.R.A. – Tea Research Association
T.R.A.I. – Telecom Regulatory Authority of India
TWAS – Third World Academy of Sciences
UU.D.C. – University Development Commission
U.N.C.L.O.S. – UN Convention on the Law of the Sea
U.N.C.T.A.D. – United Nations Conference of Trade and Development
U.G.C. – University Grants Commission
U.N.E.S.C.O. – United Nations Educational Scientific and Cultural Organisation
U.N.F.C.C.C. – United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
U.N.I.C.E.F. – United Nations International Children’s Emergency Fund
U.N.I.F.I.L. – United Nations Interim Force in Lebanon
U.P.A. – United Progressive Alliance
VV.B.A.L. – Value Based Advanced Licencing
V.D.I.S. – Voluntary Disclosure of Income Scheme
V.S.S.C. – Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre
V.A.T. – Value Added Tax
WW.C.C.B. – Wildlife Crime Control Bureau
W.C.A.R. – World Conference Against Racism
W.E.F. – World Environment Forum
W.G.I.G. – Working Group on Internet Governance
W.F.C. – World Food Council
W.I.P.O. – World Intellectual Property Organisation
W.L.L.–M. – Mobile Wireless in Local Loop
W.S.I.S. – World Summit on Information Society
W.T.O. – World Trade Organisation
W.W.F. – World Wild Life Fund; War Wounded Foundation
YY.M.C.A. – Young Men’s Christian Association
Y.W.C.A. – Young Women’s Christian Association
ZZ.S. – Zoological Society
A.A.F. – Auxiliary Air Force
A.A.O.U. – Asian Association of Open Universities
A.C.D. – Asian Co-operation Dialogue
A.D.B. – Asian Development Bank
A.D.S. – Air Defence Ship
A.E.C. – Atomic Energy Commission
A.H.Q. – Air Head Quarters; Army Head Quarters
A.I.C.C. – All India Congress Committee
A.I.D.S. – Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
A.I.R. – Annual Information Report
A.J.T. – Advanced Jet Trainer
A.N.C. – African National Council
A.P.E.C. Asia-Pacific Economic Corporation
A.P.E.D.A. – Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority
A.R.C. – Administrative Reforms Commission; Asset Reconstruction Corporation (of India)
A.S.E.A.N. – Association of South East Asian Nations
A.S.I. – Archaeological Survey of India
A.U. – African Union
A.V.E.S. – Acute Viral Encephalitic Syndrome
B
B.A.R.C. – Bhabha Atomic Research Centre
B.C.G. – Bacillus Calmette Guerin (Anti-T.B. vaccine)
BIMSTEC – Bangladesh, India, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, Thailand Economic Corporation
B.S.N.L. – Bharat Sanchar Nigam Ltd.
B.O.A.C. – British Overseas Airways Corporation
B.R.E.A.D. – Basic Research Education and Development Society
B.V.R. – Beyond Visual Range
C
C.A.B.E. – Central Advisory Board of Education
C.A.C.C.I. – Confederation of Asia-Pacific Chambers of Commerce & Industry
C.M.P. – Common Minimum Programme
C.A.D.P. – Command Area Development Programme
C.A.S. – Conditional Access System
C.C.I. – Cricket Club of India
C.D.M.A. – Code Division Multiple Access
C.H.O.G.M. – Commonwealth Heads of Government Meeting
C.I.A. – Central Intelligence Agency (U.S.A.)
C.N.G. – Compressed Natural Gas
C.N.L.U. – Chanakya National Law University
C.N.P.C. – China National Petroleum Corporation
C.S.I.R. – Council of Scientific and Industrial Research
C.S.T.O. – Collective Security Treaty Organisation
D
D.A.E. – Department of Atomic Energy
D.D.T. – Dichloro Diphenyl Trichloro-ethane
D.I.A.S. – Direct Internet Access System
D.M.R.C. – Delhi Metro Rail Corporation
D.O.A.R.T. – Deep Ocean Assessment and Reporting Technology
D.P.P. – Dabhol Power Project
D.Litt. – Doctor of Literature
D.V.C. – Damodar Valley Corporation
E
E.A.S. – East Asia Summit
E.C.I.L. – Electronics Corporation of India Limited
E.D.C.I.L. – Educational Consultants India Ltd.
E.D.I. – Educational Development Index
EDUSAT – Education Satellite
E.E.C. – Eurasian Economic Community; European Economic Community
E.E.T. – Exempt, Exempt, Taxable
E.P.I.C. – Elector’s Photo Identity Card
E.S.C.A.P. – Economic & Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (This is the new name of ECAFE)
FF.D.I. – Foreign Direct Investment
F.E.M.A. – Foreign Exchange Management Act.
F.I.C.A. – Federation of International Cricketer’s Association
F.T.A. – Free Trade Agreement
G
G.A.T.T. – General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade
G.D.P. – Gross Domestic Product
G.I.C. – General Insurance Corporation (of India)
G.I.S.T. – Global Institute of Science and Technology
G.N.P. – Gross National Product
G.U.A.M. – Georgia, Ukraine, Azerbaijan and Moldova
HH.D.F.C. – Housing Development Finance Corporation
H.U.D.C.O. – Housing and Urban Development Corporation
I
I.A.A.I. – International Airport Authority of India
I.B.S.A. – India, Brazil, South Africa
I.C.R.I.E.R. – Indian Council for Research on International Economic Relations
I.C.S.I.D. – International Centre for Settlement of Industrial Disputes
I.C.R.C. – International Committee of the Red Cross
I.C.S.S.R. – Indian Council of Scientific and Social Research
I.D.P.L. – Indian Drugs and Pharmaceuticals Limited
I.F.P.R.I. – International Food Policy Research Institute (Located in Washington)
I.F.W.J. – Indian Federation of Working Journalists
I.C.A.R. – Indian Council of Agricultural Research
I.D.A. – International Development Association
I.G.C.A.R. – Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research
I.G.M.D.P. – Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme
I.G.N.C.A. – Indira Gandhi National Centre for Arts
I.I.F.A. – International Indian Film Academy
I.M.D.T. – Illegal Migrants (Determination by Tribunals) Act, 1983
I.M.F. – International Monetary Fund
I.M.O. – Instant Money Order
I.N.S. – Indian News Paper Society
INSDOC – Indian National Scientific Documentation Centre
I.N.T.U.C. – Indian National Trade Union Congress
I.N.T.A.C.H. – Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage
I.N.X.F.A.C. – Indian Naval Extra-Fast Attact Craft
I.S.I. – Inter Services Intelligence (Pakistan)
I.S.T. – Indian Standards Time
I.S.R.O. – Indian Space Research Organisation
I.S.S.P. – Indian Scientific Satellite Project
I.T.E.R. – International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor
I.T.E.S. – Information Technology Enabled Services
I.U.C.N. – International Union for Conservation of Nature
I.U.P.E.P. – Integrated Urban Poverty Eradication Programme
J
J.V.P. – Janatha Vimukthi Peramuna
LL.I.B.O.R. – London Inter Bank Offered Rate
M
M.A.I. – Multilateral Agreement on Investment
M.C.C. – Marylebone Cricket Club
M.D.M.A. – Multi Disciplinary Monitoring Agency
M.F.A.L.A. – Marginal Farmers and Agricultural Labourers Agency
M.N.N.A. – Major Non-NATO Alley
M.R.T.P.C. – Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Commission
N
N.A.D.T. – National Authority on Drugs and Therapeutics
N.A.R.I. – National AIDS Research Institute
NATO – North Atlantic Treaty Organisation
N.B.R.A. – National Biotechnology Regulatory Authority
N.C.H.R.H. – National Council for Human Resource in Health.
N.C.A. – National Cricket Academy
N.E.A. – National Environment Authority
N.E.G.P. National E-governance Plan
N.I.F. – National Innovative Foundation
N.I.S.M. – National Institute of Securities Market
N.L.L.M. – National Legal Literacy Mission
N.M.C.C. – National Manufacturing Competitiveness Council
N.M.I.T.L.I. – New Millennium Indian Technology Leadership Initiative
N.P.T. – Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty
N.R.C. – Nuclear Regulatory Commission
N.R.E.G.A. – National Rural Employment Guarantee Act.
N.R.H.M. – National Rural Health Mission
N.R.I. – Non-Resident Indians
N.R.S.A. – National Remote Sensing Agency
N.S.C.N. – National Social Council of Nagaland
N.U.E.P.A. – National University of Educational Planning and Administration
O
O.I.C. – Overseas Indian Citizenship
O.I.G.S. – On Indian Government Service
OIL – Oil India Limited
O.N.G.C. – Oil and Natural Gas Corporation
P
P.A.C. – Public Accounts Committee; Professional Aptitude Council
P.A.N. – Permanent Account Number
P.E.S.O. – Petroleum and Explosives Safety Organisation (PESO is the changed name of Department of Explosives).
P.E.T.A. – People for the Ethical Treatment of Animals
P.F.R.D.A. – Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority
P.H.D.C.C.I. – Progress, Harmony and Development Chambers of Commerce and Industry
P.I.L. – Public Interest Litigation
P.N.R. – Passenger Numerical Record
P.O.S.C.O. – Pohang Steel Company
P.O.T.A. – Prevention of Terrorism Act
P.T.C. – Power Trading Corporation
Q
Q.I.P. – Qualified Institutional Placement
RR.A.F. – Rapid Action Force
R.S.V.P. – Repondez sil vous Plait (Fr.) reply, if you please
R.T.R.A. – Rail Tariff Regulatory Authority
SSAIL – Steel Authority of India Limited
SAPTA – South Asian Preferential Trade Agreement
S.C.O. – Shanghai Cooperation Organisation
S.C.R.A.M.J.E.T. – Supersonic Combustion Ramjet
S.E.W.A. – Self-Employed Women’s Association
S.G.R.Y. – Sampoorna Grameen Rojgar Yojana
S.G.S.Y. – Swarnjayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana
S.M.S. – Short Message Service; Subscriber Management System
SNIPES – Society for the National Institutes of Physical Education and Sports
S.W.A.P.O. – South-West African People’s Organization
TTELCO – Tata Engineering and Locomotive Company
T.E.R.C. – Trade and Economic Relations Committee
T.E.R.L.S. – Thumba Equatorial Rocket Launching Station
T.R.A. – Tea Research Association
T.R.A.I. – Telecom Regulatory Authority of India
TWAS – Third World Academy of Sciences
UU.D.C. – University Development Commission
U.N.C.L.O.S. – UN Convention on the Law of the Sea
U.N.C.T.A.D. – United Nations Conference of Trade and Development
U.G.C. – University Grants Commission
U.N.E.S.C.O. – United Nations Educational Scientific and Cultural Organisation
U.N.F.C.C.C. – United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
U.N.I.C.E.F. – United Nations International Children’s Emergency Fund
U.N.I.F.I.L. – United Nations Interim Force in Lebanon
U.P.A. – United Progressive Alliance
VV.B.A.L. – Value Based Advanced Licencing
V.D.I.S. – Voluntary Disclosure of Income Scheme
V.S.S.C. – Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre
V.A.T. – Value Added Tax
WW.C.C.B. – Wildlife Crime Control Bureau
W.C.A.R. – World Conference Against Racism
W.E.F. – World Environment Forum
W.G.I.G. – Working Group on Internet Governance
W.F.C. – World Food Council
W.I.P.O. – World Intellectual Property Organisation
W.L.L.–M. – Mobile Wireless in Local Loop
W.S.I.S. – World Summit on Information Society
W.T.O. – World Trade Organisation
W.W.F. – World Wild Life Fund; War Wounded Foundation
YY.M.C.A. – Young Men’s Christian Association
Y.W.C.A. – Young Women’s Christian Association
ZZ.S. – Zoological Society
Brilliance College Model Question Papers of Deputy Collector Examination
Every Day Science : Physics Paper 2
1. Which of the following is a derived unit ?
A. Mass B. Length C. Time D. Velocity
2. Which part of the sun is visible during total solar eclipse
A. corona B. chromosphere C. photosphere D. No part
3. The Father of electricity is :
A. Kamerlingh Onnes B. Issac Newton C. Albert Einstein D. Michael Faraday
4. One horse power is equal to –––– watts.
A. 764 B. 754 C. 745 D. 746
5. A man sitting in a train in motion is facing the engine. He tosses a coin up, the coin falls
behind him. The train is
A. moving forward with uniform speed B. moving backward with uniform speed
C. moving forward with acceleration D. moving forward with deceleration
6. Speedometer of an automobile measures
A. average velocityB. acceleration C. instantaneous speed
D. instantaneous velocity
7. The SI unit of work is
A. Joule B. Watt C. Calorie D. Ampere
8. The study of friction and lubricants is
A. Astrophysics B. Dynamics C. Optics D. Tribology
9. In long jump (distance is measured only horizontally) a person who jumps at an angle ——
—— to ground has greater probability of winning.
A. 450 B. 900 C. 300 D. 600
10. Who proposed atomic theory ?
A. John Dalton B. Neils Bohr C. Chadwick D. Rutherford
11. When ice melts, its volume
A. increases B. decreases C. remains the same
D. first decreases then increases
12. Three primary colours of light are
A. Red, green, blue B. Red, yellow, green C. Red, yellow, blue D. Green, blue, yellow
13. The gravitational pull exerted by the earth is maximum at the
A. South pole B. North pole C. Antartic circle D. Equator
14. Solar eclipse occurs on
A. full moon day B. new moon day C. half moon day D. none of these
15. The foul air we exhale in a room is
A. cooler and hence lighter B. warmer and hence heavier
C. warmer and hence lighter D. cooler and hence heavier
16. Factor which decides the climate of a place
A. Latitudes B. Distance from the sea C. Rotation of the earth
D. Longitude
17. Ozone layer above the earth is between
A. 20 and 35 km B. 60 and 80 km C. 80 and 110 km D. 75 and 100 km
18. The highest science award in India
A. Bhabha award B. C.V. Raman award C. S.S. Bhatnagar award
D. Chanakya award
19. Who invented MASER
A. Charles H. Townes B. Theodore Maiman C. James Harrison
D. Alexander Catlin
20. INSAT – 2C was launched from ——
A. Thumba B. Hanoi C. Kourou Island D. Ottawa
21. The power of an ordinary torch cell is
A. 0.5 V B. 2.5 V C. 1.5 V D. 1.1 V
22. Light year is the unit of
A. time B. speed C. distance D. year
23. The first known source of a magnet was discovered in
A. Asia Minor (Turkey) B. Iran C. Gold Coast D. Bombay high
24. In a Doctor’s stethescope, the sound is intensified because of
A. Resonance of sound B.Constructive interference
C. Principle of super position of waves D. Reflection of sound
25. In colder regions, the thermometer used to measure temperature is
A. wet and dry bulb hygrometer B. Mercury thermometer C. Gas thermometer
D. Alcohol thermometer
26. What type of energy does a compressed spring possess ?
A. Kinetic B. potential C. thermal D. magnetic
27. If the temperature of a patient is 400C, his temperature on the Fahrenheit scale will be
A. 1040F B. 720F C. 960F D. 1000F
28. A simple microscope consists of ———
A. concave lens B. plano concave lens C. convex lens D. cylindrical lens
29. Short sightedness can be corrected by ——
A. convex mirror B. concave lens C. plane mirror D. concave lens
30. When temperature increases, the velocity of sound—
A. increases B. decreases C. will not change
D. increases and then decreases
31. Intensity of a sound is measured in ———
A. Hertz B. Decibel C. miles/second
D. periodicity and regularity
32. Loudness of sound depends upon its ——
A. wave length B. frequency C. amplitude D. overtones
33. Which of the following is most elastic ?
A. Steel B. Glass C. Aluminium D. Rubber
34. In a periodic table, the horizontal rows are called——
A. periods B. groups C. series D. none of the above
35. Photo electric effect was first explained by —
A. Rutherford B. J.J. Thomson C. Bohr D. Einstein
36. Henry Bequeral discovered ––––––
A. field emission B. natural radioactivity
C. Artifical radioactivity D. a, b, and g - rays
37. Control rods used in nuclear reactors are made of ——
A. stainless steel B. graphite C. cadmium D. plutonium
38. 1 Quintal = ———— kilograms
A. 100 B. 1000 C. 10000 D. 10
39. The weight of diamond is determined by an unit called –––––
A. Carat B. Gram C. Litre D. Mohs
40. Under what condition does a lunar eclipse takes place?
A. The earth comes between the sun and the moon
B. The moon comes between the sun and the earth
C. The sun comes between the earth and the moon
D. The sun, moon and earth are in straight line in any order
41. ———— is called the twin planet earth
A. Mars B. Uranus C. Mercury D. Venus
42. Which of the following is uses as a heating element
A. Silver B. Copper C. Nichrome D. Tin
43. Dr. Abdul Kalam was awarded the ‘Bharat Ratna’ in 1997 for
A. Missile Technology B. Nuclear Research C. War gallantry
D. Food Technology
44. The technique used to transmit audio signals in television broadcast is
A. Amplitude modulation B. Frequency modulation
C. Pulse code modulation D.Time division multiplexing
45. Sunlight filtering through a tree often makes circular patches on the ground because
A. the space through which light penitrates B. due to polarization of light
C. due to interference of light D. due to diffraction phenomenon
46. Reflectors used in solar cookers are
A. convex B. concave C. plane D. cylindrical
47. Which one of the following element is seen abundantly in solar system ?
A. Helium B. Hydrogen C. Oxygen D. Nitrogen
48. The working principle of the ink filler is
A. The pressure outside the bottle acts on the filler
B. The expansion of the filler
C. The cylindrical structure of the filler
D. The atmospheric pressure acts on the surface on the ink
49. Dentist’s mirror is a
A. Cylindrical mirror B. Plane mirror C. Convex mirror D. Concave mirror
50. A rainbow is formed by the ——— of light by water droplets
A. disperson B. scattering C. total internal reflection
D. disperson and total internal reflection.
51. National Science Day is observed on 28th February to commemorate
A. Bhabha’s birthday B. The day of declaration of Raman Effect
C. Launching of the first Indian Satellite Aryabhatta
D. Successful launching of PSLV
52. Hypermetropia can be corrected by using ——
A. concave lens B. convex lens C. plano concave lens D. plano convex lens
53. When was the first Atomic Energy Commission set up in India ?
A. August 10, 1948 B. August 12, 1950 C. August 1, 1949 D. August 20, 1951
54. India conducted the first nuclear explosion in the year
A. May 18, 1974 B. May 11, 1998 C. May 13, 1998 D. May 12, 1988
55. Which of the following is the best conductor of electricity?
A. Cold water B. Warm water C. Saline water D. Distilled water
56. Which sector in India uses coal in maximum quantity?
A. Railway B. Thermal plants C. Refineries D. Transport
57. The density of water is maximum in
A. 00C B. 40C C. 250C D. 1000C
58. The farthest object in solar system is
A. Neptune B. Pluto C. Eris D. Ceres
59. Liquified gas under a pressure of 58 atmospheres is
A. Water gas B. Hard water C. Dry ice D. Soft water
60. The sun’s heat and light energy reaches the earth by
A. conduction B. Convection C. reflection D. radiation
61. Where is the National Physical Laboratory situated
A. Puna B. NewDelhi C. Culcutta D. Bangalore
62. Which of the following is a common constituent of transistor ?
A. Silicon B. Copper C. Beryllium C. Iron
63. When common salt is mixed with ice, the freezing point
A. is lowered B. is raised C. remains unaffected
D. is first lowered and then raised
64. As the train starts moving, a man sitting inside leans backwards because of
A. inertia of rest B. inertia of motion C. moment of inertia
D. conservation of mass
65. Water pipes burst in severe winter at hill stations because
A. they contract on cooling B. water in the pipe contracts on freezing
C. water in the pipe expands on freezing D. pipes expand on cooling
66. An aneroid barometer uses
A. mercury B. alcohol C. distilled water
D. doesn’t use any liquid
67. The ink of the pen leaks out in an aeroplane because
A. atmospheric pressure increases
B. pressure of ink inside is more than the ambient pressure
C. high speed of aeroplane D. temperature difference
68. Perspiration is maximum when temperature is
A. high and air is humid B. high and air is dry
C. low and air is humid D. low and air is dry
69. Sound travels fastest in
A. air B. water C. vacuum D. steel
70. A periscope works by the principle of
A. diffraction B. reflection and interference
C. reflection and refraction D. refraction only
71. An air bubble in water shines because of the phenomenon of
A. reflection B. refraction C. diffraction
D. total internal reflection
72. The pitch of the voice of women is in general
A. higher than that of men B. marginally lower than that of men
C. the same as that of men
D. Some times higher and sometimes lower than that of men
73. A noise level of 20 decibels would correspond to
A. ordinary conversation B. whispering C. Machine sound
D. Supersonic plane’s sound
74. To detect the over speeding vehicles, police use
A. Diffraction of short radio waves B. Refraction of short radio waves
C. Doppler effect of reflected short radio waves
D. Reflection and refraction of short radio waves
75. A choke is fitted along with fluorescent tubes. The choke coil,
A. steps up the line voltage B. steps down the line voltage
C. reduces current in the circuit D. vanishes the low frequency currents
76. The transmission of heat without any carrier in between is
A. conduction B. convection C. refraction D. radiation
77. Atom bomb was discovered by
A. Edward Teller B. Madam Curie C. Baird D. Otto Hahn
78. Which law of Newton defines inertial frames ?
A. First law B. Second law C. Third law D. Both (A), (B) and (C)
79. From the point of view of wave motion, a ray can be defined as an imaginary line draw in
the direction in which
A. the wave is travelling B. the wave is reflected
C. the ray is refracted D. Name of the above
80. A person can view his full-length image in a mirror that is at least ——— his height
A. one-fifth B. one-fourth C. one-third D. half
81. The vacuum in a thermos bottle minimizes heat transfer by
A. Conduction B. Convection C. Radiation D. Absorption
82. What is the colour of the black box kept in the cockpit of an aeroplane ?
A. Orange B. Black C. White D. Red
83. With increase of humidity, the velocity of sound in air
A. decreases B. increases C. fluctuates irregularly D.remains unaffected
84. With increase of height from the surface of the earth the value of ‘g’
A. increases B. decreases C. remains constant D. fluctuates
85. A gyrostatic compass is used in
A. aeroplanes B. ships C. submarines D. All of the above
86. What is the unit of current ?
A. watt B. volt C. Ampere D. Coulomb
87. The net weight of LPG in a domestic gas cylinder supplied is
A. 14.2 kg B. 14 kg C. 15.2 kg D. 15 kg
88. The phenomenon of ———— has been used to test the planeness of surfaces and also to
reduce reflecting power of the lens and the prism surfaces
A. diffraction B. interference C. polarization D. none of the above
89. A thermodynamic system is one which can be described in terms of
A. temperature B. volume C. introphy
D. thermodynamic co-ordinate
90. The process by which solids directly change to gaseous state is
A. Diffusion B. condensation C. Sublimation D. Vapourisation
91. The technique in which 3-dimentional picture of an object can be obtained is
A. LASER B. Holography C. Photography
D. Optical interferrometry
92. Which one of the following is used by the motorist to see the road behind him
A. concave mirror B. convex mirror C. concave lens D. convex lens
93. An astronaut on an earth satellite will observe the sky as
A. deep red B. sky blue C. black D. deep blue
94. The image formed on the retina of the human eye is
A. imaginary and upright B. imaginary and inverted
C. real and upright D. real and inverted
95. The lowest temperature is recorded
A. at midnight B. just after sun rise C. just before sun rise
D. between 4 pm and 5 pm
96. The energy possessed by the water collected in the reservoir of a dam
A. Kinetic energy B. Mechanical energy C. Electric energy D. Potential energy
97. The most important raw material for generation of power in India
A. Uranium B. Thorium C. Radium D. Coal
98. India’s first tactical surface-to surface missle was —
A. Agni B. Trishul C. Prithvi D. Insat – IB
99. ISRO Satellite Centre is at
A. Thiruvananthapuram B. Bangalore C. Sriharikota
D. Trombay
100.An instrument which indicates altitude of a place along with corresponding pressure
A. Anemometer B. Barometer C. Hygrometer D. Altimeter
Answers
1 D; 2 A; 3 D; 4 D; 5 C; 6 C; 7 A; 8 D; 9 A; 10 A; 11 B; 12 A; 13 D; 14 B; 15 C; 16 A; 17 A; 18 C; 19 A; 20 C; 21 C; 22 C; 23 A; 24 D; 25 D; 26 B; 27 A; 28 C; 29 B; 30 A; 31 B; 32 C; 33 B; 34 A; 35 D; 36 B; 37 C; 38 A; 39 A; 40 A; 41 D; 42 C; 43 A; 44 B; 45 D; 46 B; 47 B; 48 D; 49 D; 50 D; 51 B; 52 B; 53 A ;54 A; 55 C; 56 B; 57 B; 58 C; 59 C; 60 D; 61 B; 62 A; 63 A; 64 A; 65 C; 66 D; 67 B; 68 A; 69 D; 70 C; 71 D; 72 A; 73 B; 74 C; 75 A; 76 D; 77 D; 78 A; 79 A; 80 D; 81 B; 82 B; 83 B; 84 B; 85 D; 86 C; 87 A; 88 B; 89 D; 90 C; 91 B; 92 B; 93 C; 94 D; 95 C; 96 D; 97 D; 98 C; 99 B; 100D
1. Which of the following is a derived unit ?
A. Mass B. Length C. Time D. Velocity
2. Which part of the sun is visible during total solar eclipse
A. corona B. chromosphere C. photosphere D. No part
3. The Father of electricity is :
A. Kamerlingh Onnes B. Issac Newton C. Albert Einstein D. Michael Faraday
4. One horse power is equal to –––– watts.
A. 764 B. 754 C. 745 D. 746
5. A man sitting in a train in motion is facing the engine. He tosses a coin up, the coin falls
behind him. The train is
A. moving forward with uniform speed B. moving backward with uniform speed
C. moving forward with acceleration D. moving forward with deceleration
6. Speedometer of an automobile measures
A. average velocityB. acceleration C. instantaneous speed
D. instantaneous velocity
7. The SI unit of work is
A. Joule B. Watt C. Calorie D. Ampere
8. The study of friction and lubricants is
A. Astrophysics B. Dynamics C. Optics D. Tribology
9. In long jump (distance is measured only horizontally) a person who jumps at an angle ——
—— to ground has greater probability of winning.
A. 450 B. 900 C. 300 D. 600
10. Who proposed atomic theory ?
A. John Dalton B. Neils Bohr C. Chadwick D. Rutherford
11. When ice melts, its volume
A. increases B. decreases C. remains the same
D. first decreases then increases
12. Three primary colours of light are
A. Red, green, blue B. Red, yellow, green C. Red, yellow, blue D. Green, blue, yellow
13. The gravitational pull exerted by the earth is maximum at the
A. South pole B. North pole C. Antartic circle D. Equator
14. Solar eclipse occurs on
A. full moon day B. new moon day C. half moon day D. none of these
15. The foul air we exhale in a room is
A. cooler and hence lighter B. warmer and hence heavier
C. warmer and hence lighter D. cooler and hence heavier
16. Factor which decides the climate of a place
A. Latitudes B. Distance from the sea C. Rotation of the earth
D. Longitude
17. Ozone layer above the earth is between
A. 20 and 35 km B. 60 and 80 km C. 80 and 110 km D. 75 and 100 km
18. The highest science award in India
A. Bhabha award B. C.V. Raman award C. S.S. Bhatnagar award
D. Chanakya award
19. Who invented MASER
A. Charles H. Townes B. Theodore Maiman C. James Harrison
D. Alexander Catlin
20. INSAT – 2C was launched from ——
A. Thumba B. Hanoi C. Kourou Island D. Ottawa
21. The power of an ordinary torch cell is
A. 0.5 V B. 2.5 V C. 1.5 V D. 1.1 V
22. Light year is the unit of
A. time B. speed C. distance D. year
23. The first known source of a magnet was discovered in
A. Asia Minor (Turkey) B. Iran C. Gold Coast D. Bombay high
24. In a Doctor’s stethescope, the sound is intensified because of
A. Resonance of sound B.Constructive interference
C. Principle of super position of waves D. Reflection of sound
25. In colder regions, the thermometer used to measure temperature is
A. wet and dry bulb hygrometer B. Mercury thermometer C. Gas thermometer
D. Alcohol thermometer
26. What type of energy does a compressed spring possess ?
A. Kinetic B. potential C. thermal D. magnetic
27. If the temperature of a patient is 400C, his temperature on the Fahrenheit scale will be
A. 1040F B. 720F C. 960F D. 1000F
28. A simple microscope consists of ———
A. concave lens B. plano concave lens C. convex lens D. cylindrical lens
29. Short sightedness can be corrected by ——
A. convex mirror B. concave lens C. plane mirror D. concave lens
30. When temperature increases, the velocity of sound—
A. increases B. decreases C. will not change
D. increases and then decreases
31. Intensity of a sound is measured in ———
A. Hertz B. Decibel C. miles/second
D. periodicity and regularity
32. Loudness of sound depends upon its ——
A. wave length B. frequency C. amplitude D. overtones
33. Which of the following is most elastic ?
A. Steel B. Glass C. Aluminium D. Rubber
34. In a periodic table, the horizontal rows are called——
A. periods B. groups C. series D. none of the above
35. Photo electric effect was first explained by —
A. Rutherford B. J.J. Thomson C. Bohr D. Einstein
36. Henry Bequeral discovered ––––––
A. field emission B. natural radioactivity
C. Artifical radioactivity D. a, b, and g - rays
37. Control rods used in nuclear reactors are made of ——
A. stainless steel B. graphite C. cadmium D. plutonium
38. 1 Quintal = ———— kilograms
A. 100 B. 1000 C. 10000 D. 10
39. The weight of diamond is determined by an unit called –––––
A. Carat B. Gram C. Litre D. Mohs
40. Under what condition does a lunar eclipse takes place?
A. The earth comes between the sun and the moon
B. The moon comes between the sun and the earth
C. The sun comes between the earth and the moon
D. The sun, moon and earth are in straight line in any order
41. ———— is called the twin planet earth
A. Mars B. Uranus C. Mercury D. Venus
42. Which of the following is uses as a heating element
A. Silver B. Copper C. Nichrome D. Tin
43. Dr. Abdul Kalam was awarded the ‘Bharat Ratna’ in 1997 for
A. Missile Technology B. Nuclear Research C. War gallantry
D. Food Technology
44. The technique used to transmit audio signals in television broadcast is
A. Amplitude modulation B. Frequency modulation
C. Pulse code modulation D.Time division multiplexing
45. Sunlight filtering through a tree often makes circular patches on the ground because
A. the space through which light penitrates B. due to polarization of light
C. due to interference of light D. due to diffraction phenomenon
46. Reflectors used in solar cookers are
A. convex B. concave C. plane D. cylindrical
47. Which one of the following element is seen abundantly in solar system ?
A. Helium B. Hydrogen C. Oxygen D. Nitrogen
48. The working principle of the ink filler is
A. The pressure outside the bottle acts on the filler
B. The expansion of the filler
C. The cylindrical structure of the filler
D. The atmospheric pressure acts on the surface on the ink
49. Dentist’s mirror is a
A. Cylindrical mirror B. Plane mirror C. Convex mirror D. Concave mirror
50. A rainbow is formed by the ——— of light by water droplets
A. disperson B. scattering C. total internal reflection
D. disperson and total internal reflection.
51. National Science Day is observed on 28th February to commemorate
A. Bhabha’s birthday B. The day of declaration of Raman Effect
C. Launching of the first Indian Satellite Aryabhatta
D. Successful launching of PSLV
52. Hypermetropia can be corrected by using ——
A. concave lens B. convex lens C. plano concave lens D. plano convex lens
53. When was the first Atomic Energy Commission set up in India ?
A. August 10, 1948 B. August 12, 1950 C. August 1, 1949 D. August 20, 1951
54. India conducted the first nuclear explosion in the year
A. May 18, 1974 B. May 11, 1998 C. May 13, 1998 D. May 12, 1988
55. Which of the following is the best conductor of electricity?
A. Cold water B. Warm water C. Saline water D. Distilled water
56. Which sector in India uses coal in maximum quantity?
A. Railway B. Thermal plants C. Refineries D. Transport
57. The density of water is maximum in
A. 00C B. 40C C. 250C D. 1000C
58. The farthest object in solar system is
A. Neptune B. Pluto C. Eris D. Ceres
59. Liquified gas under a pressure of 58 atmospheres is
A. Water gas B. Hard water C. Dry ice D. Soft water
60. The sun’s heat and light energy reaches the earth by
A. conduction B. Convection C. reflection D. radiation
61. Where is the National Physical Laboratory situated
A. Puna B. NewDelhi C. Culcutta D. Bangalore
62. Which of the following is a common constituent of transistor ?
A. Silicon B. Copper C. Beryllium C. Iron
63. When common salt is mixed with ice, the freezing point
A. is lowered B. is raised C. remains unaffected
D. is first lowered and then raised
64. As the train starts moving, a man sitting inside leans backwards because of
A. inertia of rest B. inertia of motion C. moment of inertia
D. conservation of mass
65. Water pipes burst in severe winter at hill stations because
A. they contract on cooling B. water in the pipe contracts on freezing
C. water in the pipe expands on freezing D. pipes expand on cooling
66. An aneroid barometer uses
A. mercury B. alcohol C. distilled water
D. doesn’t use any liquid
67. The ink of the pen leaks out in an aeroplane because
A. atmospheric pressure increases
B. pressure of ink inside is more than the ambient pressure
C. high speed of aeroplane D. temperature difference
68. Perspiration is maximum when temperature is
A. high and air is humid B. high and air is dry
C. low and air is humid D. low and air is dry
69. Sound travels fastest in
A. air B. water C. vacuum D. steel
70. A periscope works by the principle of
A. diffraction B. reflection and interference
C. reflection and refraction D. refraction only
71. An air bubble in water shines because of the phenomenon of
A. reflection B. refraction C. diffraction
D. total internal reflection
72. The pitch of the voice of women is in general
A. higher than that of men B. marginally lower than that of men
C. the same as that of men
D. Some times higher and sometimes lower than that of men
73. A noise level of 20 decibels would correspond to
A. ordinary conversation B. whispering C. Machine sound
D. Supersonic plane’s sound
74. To detect the over speeding vehicles, police use
A. Diffraction of short radio waves B. Refraction of short radio waves
C. Doppler effect of reflected short radio waves
D. Reflection and refraction of short radio waves
75. A choke is fitted along with fluorescent tubes. The choke coil,
A. steps up the line voltage B. steps down the line voltage
C. reduces current in the circuit D. vanishes the low frequency currents
76. The transmission of heat without any carrier in between is
A. conduction B. convection C. refraction D. radiation
77. Atom bomb was discovered by
A. Edward Teller B. Madam Curie C. Baird D. Otto Hahn
78. Which law of Newton defines inertial frames ?
A. First law B. Second law C. Third law D. Both (A), (B) and (C)
79. From the point of view of wave motion, a ray can be defined as an imaginary line draw in
the direction in which
A. the wave is travelling B. the wave is reflected
C. the ray is refracted D. Name of the above
80. A person can view his full-length image in a mirror that is at least ——— his height
A. one-fifth B. one-fourth C. one-third D. half
81. The vacuum in a thermos bottle minimizes heat transfer by
A. Conduction B. Convection C. Radiation D. Absorption
82. What is the colour of the black box kept in the cockpit of an aeroplane ?
A. Orange B. Black C. White D. Red
83. With increase of humidity, the velocity of sound in air
A. decreases B. increases C. fluctuates irregularly D.remains unaffected
84. With increase of height from the surface of the earth the value of ‘g’
A. increases B. decreases C. remains constant D. fluctuates
85. A gyrostatic compass is used in
A. aeroplanes B. ships C. submarines D. All of the above
86. What is the unit of current ?
A. watt B. volt C. Ampere D. Coulomb
87. The net weight of LPG in a domestic gas cylinder supplied is
A. 14.2 kg B. 14 kg C. 15.2 kg D. 15 kg
88. The phenomenon of ———— has been used to test the planeness of surfaces and also to
reduce reflecting power of the lens and the prism surfaces
A. diffraction B. interference C. polarization D. none of the above
89. A thermodynamic system is one which can be described in terms of
A. temperature B. volume C. introphy
D. thermodynamic co-ordinate
90. The process by which solids directly change to gaseous state is
A. Diffusion B. condensation C. Sublimation D. Vapourisation
91. The technique in which 3-dimentional picture of an object can be obtained is
A. LASER B. Holography C. Photography
D. Optical interferrometry
92. Which one of the following is used by the motorist to see the road behind him
A. concave mirror B. convex mirror C. concave lens D. convex lens
93. An astronaut on an earth satellite will observe the sky as
A. deep red B. sky blue C. black D. deep blue
94. The image formed on the retina of the human eye is
A. imaginary and upright B. imaginary and inverted
C. real and upright D. real and inverted
95. The lowest temperature is recorded
A. at midnight B. just after sun rise C. just before sun rise
D. between 4 pm and 5 pm
96. The energy possessed by the water collected in the reservoir of a dam
A. Kinetic energy B. Mechanical energy C. Electric energy D. Potential energy
97. The most important raw material for generation of power in India
A. Uranium B. Thorium C. Radium D. Coal
98. India’s first tactical surface-to surface missle was —
A. Agni B. Trishul C. Prithvi D. Insat – IB
99. ISRO Satellite Centre is at
A. Thiruvananthapuram B. Bangalore C. Sriharikota
D. Trombay
100.An instrument which indicates altitude of a place along with corresponding pressure
A. Anemometer B. Barometer C. Hygrometer D. Altimeter
Answers
1 D; 2 A; 3 D; 4 D; 5 C; 6 C; 7 A; 8 D; 9 A; 10 A; 11 B; 12 A; 13 D; 14 B; 15 C; 16 A; 17 A; 18 C; 19 A; 20 C; 21 C; 22 C; 23 A; 24 D; 25 D; 26 B; 27 A; 28 C; 29 B; 30 A; 31 B; 32 C; 33 B; 34 A; 35 D; 36 B; 37 C; 38 A; 39 A; 40 A; 41 D; 42 C; 43 A; 44 B; 45 D; 46 B; 47 B; 48 D; 49 D; 50 D; 51 B; 52 B; 53 A ;54 A; 55 C; 56 B; 57 B; 58 C; 59 C; 60 D; 61 B; 62 A; 63 A; 64 A; 65 C; 66 D; 67 B; 68 A; 69 D; 70 C; 71 D; 72 A; 73 B; 74 C; 75 A; 76 D; 77 D; 78 A; 79 A; 80 D; 81 B; 82 B; 83 B; 84 B; 85 D; 86 C; 87 A; 88 B; 89 D; 90 C; 91 B; 92 B; 93 C; 94 D; 95 C; 96 D; 97 D; 98 C; 99 B; 100D
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Deputy Collector Examination - Model Question Papers 01
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Every Day Science : Physics Paper 1
1. Who had invented wireless telegraph?
A. J.L.Baird B. Alfred Nobel C. Marconi D. Waterman
2. Who discovered X-Rays?
A. Brequet B. James Watt C. Cavendish D. Roentgen
3. A Photometer is used for the determination of :
A. Altitudes B. Electric Potential
C. Specific gravity D. Intensity of illumination
4. Quantum Theory was discovered by:
A. J. Priestly B. Marconi C. Max Plank D. W.K.Roentgen
5. Which was associated with Fermi?
A. South Pole B. Atomic Bomb C. Wireless Telegraph D. Raman Effect
6. The element of an electric heater is made of :
A. Brass B. Copper C. Iron D. Nichrome
7. The audiable frequency of human ear is between 20 hertz and –––––hertz
A. 20000 B. 15000 C. 2000 D. 200
8. What does a voltmeter measure?
A. Current B. Potential difference C. Resistance D. None of these
9. How does a yellow flower look in red light?
A. Black B. Red C. Orange D. White
10. Two solid bodies A and B float in water. It is observed that A floats with 2/3 of its volume
immersed while B floats with 3/4 of its volume immersed. The densities of A and B are in
the ratio:
A. 9:8 B. 8:9 C. 2:3 D. None of these
11. If the distance between two bodies is halved, the force of gravitation:
A. Decreases slightly B. Remains unchanged
C. Becomes double the previous value D. Becomes four times the previous value
12. The Moon is kept in orbit due to a balance between:
A. Centripetal force and gravitational force
B. Earth’s attraction and Sun’s attraction
C. Centrifugal force and gravitational force
D. None of these
13. The kind of energy stored in a dam is:
A. Heat energy B. Kinetic energy C. Potential energy D. None of these
14. Which is most elastic?
A. Copper B. Steel C. Glass D. None of these
15. Law of Electrolysis was discovered by:
A. Snell B. Faraday C. Dalton D. Kepler
16. Alcohol is used as a thermometric liquid when it is desired to measure:
A. Low temperatures B. High temperatures
C. Very high temperatures D. None of these
17. Water pipes are apt to burst in cold weather because:
A. They contract due to cold weather
B. They expand due to cold weather
C. The water in the pipe cannot evaporate
D. The water in the pipe turns into ice and expands
18. Humidity in air is measured by:
A. Hygrometer B. Hydrometer C. Manometer D. Anemometer
19. Why does ice in sawdust not melt quickly?
A. Sawdust does allow the air to touch the ice
B. The water is absorbed by sawdust
C. Sawdust is a Bad Conductor of heat
D. None of these
20. Why is the rainbow seen after rainfall?
A. There are certain gases after rain
B. As the light passes through rain drops it under goes disperion
C. The atmosphere is clear by rain
D. As the atmosphere is clear light undergoes reflection
21. Grass look green because:
A. It is by nature
B. It reflects green colour
C. It absorbs all the colours of white light except green
D. None of these
22. The weight of a man at the surface of the moon will be only about one-sixth of his weight
on the earth because:
A. Moon has no atmosphere
B. The gravity of moon is about that much less (one-sixth as compared to that of the earth)
C. Moon is very far off from the earth
D. The moon is six times smaller than earth
23. Which one, out of cold, boiling or warm water is a better fire extinguisher?
A. Warm water B. Cold water C. Boiling water D. None of these
24. We can see things more clearly at night when we:
A. Look slightly, below the thing B. Look directly the thing
C. Look out of the side of the eye D. None of these
25. Balloons are filled with hydrogen on account of:
A. Its being colourless B. Its being odourless
C. Its extreme lightness D. None of these
26. Acoustic is the science dealing with the study of:
A. Light B. Space C. Sound D. None of these
27. At which location on the earth will the same object weigh the least?
A. South Pole B. North Pole C. Equator D. None of these
28. Safety match was invented by:
A. Landstrom B. Wilson C. Perkin D. None of these
29. The instrument which measures depth of the ocean is called:
A. Fathometer B. Gravimeter C. Galvanometer D. Altimeter
30. The name of the instrument used for recording sound under water is:
A. Gravimeter B. Hydrometer C. Hydrophone D. Hygrometer
31. Radio Activity was discovered by:
A. Henry Becquerel B. Rutherford
C. Edward Jenner D. Madam Curie
32. The SI unit of temperature is:
A. Kelvin B. Celsius C. Centigrade D. Fahrenheit
33. .......is not used for the production of atomic energy:
A. Radium B. Uranium C. Thorium D. Barium
34. Black Holes are celestrial bodies which have a strong force:
A. Electric B. Magnetic C. Gravitational D. Cosmic
35. X-rays cannot penetrate through
A. Wood B. Aluminium C. Lead D. Iron
36. Light year is the unit of:
A. Velocity B. Distance C. Light D. Time
37. When ion rusts, its weight:
A. Increases B. Decreases
C. Remains the same D. First increases and then decreases
38. ......energy causes least pollution.
A. Solar B. Thermal C. Nuclear D. Chemical
39. Cosmology deals with:
A. Cosmetics B. Medicine C. Universe D. Satellites
40. ........ is not a primary colour.
A. Red B. Blue C. Green D. Yellow
41. The instrument used for detection and measurement of electric current is:
A. Voltmeter B. Galvanometer C. Wattmeter D. Anemometer
42. The lowest temperature theoretically possible is:
A. -278°C B. -273°C C. -270°C D. -237°C
43. Alfred Nobel invented the:
A. Atom bomb B. Machine gun C. Dynamite D. Dynamo
44. The equatorial radius is ....... miles.
A. 3,963 B. 3,693 C. 3,669 D. 3,369
45. If a red object is seen in blue light, it will:
A. Violet B. Red C. Green D. Black
46. Time taken by sunlight to reach the earth is:
A. 15 sec B. 8 sec C. 15 min D. 8 min
47. EEG is related to the:
A. Brain B. Heart C. Eyes D. Kidneys
48. In normal condition, the pace maker of heart is in the :
A. Lymph node B. AV node C. Sinoatrial node D. Sinus Venosus
49. Selenology is the study of:
A. Selenium B. Moon C. Venus D. Mars
50. .........records the intensity of earthquake.
A. Electrograph B. Oscilloscope C. Seismograph D. Spectrograph
51. The minimum velocity required to escape from the earth’s gravitational field is ......km/sec.
A. 11.9 B. 11.2 C. 11.6 D. 11.4
52. What’s the Avagadro’s number?
A. 6.023×1021 B. 6.023×1023 C. 6.023×10° D. 6.023×1025
53. Einstein was awarded the Nobel Prize for (the):
A. Theory of Relativity B. Einstein shift
C. Photoelectric effect D. E = MC2
54. A sudden fall in barometeric pressure indicates:
A. Rain B. Storm C. Hot weather D. Clear sky
55. Unit of work is:
A. Joule B. Dyne C. Pound D. Newton
56. Which day is celebrated as Science Day?
A. September 5th B. November 14th C. February 28th D. None of these
57. Cylindrical lens is used to correct:
A. Myopia B. Astigmatism C. Hypermetropia D. Colour blindness
58. Isotopes of an element have the same:
A. Atomic mass B. Atomic number C. Density D. Atomic weight
59. Who discovered the elivator?
A. Madam Curie B. Einstein C. Elisa Ottis D. Roentgen
60. Which statement is wrong?
A. Iron sinks in water B. Wood floats in water
C. Mercury floats in water D. Iron floats in mercury
61. The instrument for measuring curvature of surface is:
A. Spherometer B. Sphygmo manometer
C. Sphygmoscope D. Spectrometer
62. The instrument for measuring the altitude of the sun is called:
A. Spectrometer B. Sextant C. Spherometer D. Altimeter
63. Which one of the following does a TV remote control unit use to operate a TV set?
A. Light waves B. Sound waves C. Radio waves D. Infrared waves
64. Persistence of vision is the principle behind
A. camera B. spectroscope C. cinema D. periscope
65. The weight of a body is
A. the same everywhere on the surface of the earth
B. maximum at the poles
C. maximum at the equator
D. more on the hills than in the plains
66. Ball pen works on the principle of
A. Viscosity B. Boyle’s law
C. Gravitational force D. Capillarity and surface tension
67. At what temperature a body will not radiate any heat energy?
A. 0°C B. 273°C C. -4°C D. -273°C
68. A telescope and a microscope differ in that
A. both are different instruments
B. telescope has eyepiece with larger focal lengths than the objective
C. telescope has objective of large local lengths and eyepiece of smaller focal lengths.
D. None of these
69. The apparatus used in submarines to give clear view of the objects on the surface of the
ocean or ground is known as
A. periscope B. sectant C. stereoscope D. telescope
70. Which metal is commonly used for making an electromagnet?
A. copper B. iron C. nickel D. cobalt
71. Choke is used to
A. reduce high frequency components of electric signal
B. reduce the low frequency components of electric signal
C. convert AC to DC
D. convert DC to AC
72. The ozone layer protects us from
A. ultra violet rays B. radiowaves C. visual radiation D. infrared radiation
73. An example for second order lever is –––––.
A. Lime Sequeser B. Nail puller C. Ballance D. lu tongs
74. Growth of the baby in the uterus is found using
A. X-rays B. Gamma rays C. Ultra sound D. Ultra violet rays
75. The weather map telecast in T.V.is photographed by the satellite orbitting a height of
A. 36,000 k.m. B. 3,600 k.m. C. 3,600 miles D. 360 k.m.
76. The unit of force is –––––.
A. newton B. joule C. coulomb D. dioptre
77. The shining particles seen in the path of beem from a projector in cinema hall is due to
A. shining particles emanating from projector
B. scattering of light by dust particles in the path of the light
C. brownian movement of the dust
D. electrical properties of dust particles
78. “Decibal” is a unit of
A. sound intensity B. light C. heat D. electricity
79. An example of semi-conductor is
A. German silver B. Germanium C. Phosphorus D. Arsenic
80. Unit of charge is
A. Coulumb B. Faraday C. Ampere D. Volt
81. Atom bomb work for the principle of
A. Nuclear fission B. Nuclear fusion C. Newton’s law D. Faraday’s law
82. Four electro magnetic waves of different wave lengths are given. X-rays, Microwaves,
Ultraviolet, Infrared. Their correct arrangement in the descending order of wave length is
A. X-rays, Ulttraviolet, Infrared and Microwaves
B. Microwaves, Infrared Ultraviolet and X-rays
C. Ultraviolet, Infrared, X-rays and Microwaves
D. Microwaves, X-rays, Infrared and Ultraviolet
83. When light enters a lens (glass) there is a change in
A. wave length B. frequency C. velocity D. both (A) and (C)
84. Hydrogen bomb is based on the principle of
A. Nuclear fusion B. Nuclear fission C. Chemical reaction D. Chain reaction
85. When a wave goes from one place to another it transports
A. matter B. energy C. mass D. nothing
86. A 100 watt bulb will consume one unit of electrical energy in
A. 1 hour B. 10 hours C. one day D. 60 hours
87. The solar system belongs the galaxy called
A. Andromeda nebula B. Milky way
C. Radio galaxy D. Magellanic cloud
88. Which one of the following layers of the atmosphere is responsible for the reflection of
radio waves?
A. troposphere B. stratosphere C. mesosphere D. ionosphere
89. Television was discovered by
A. Becquerrel B. H.J.Bhaba C. Bohr D. J.L. Baird
90. On adding a little antimony to germanium, we get
A. P-type semiconductor B. N-type semiconductor
C. metallic conductor D. intrinsic semiconductor
91. Consider the statements: X - rays
I. are not electromagnetic radiations II. are electromagnetic radiations
III. have longer wave lengths IV. have shorter wave lengths
Of these statements:
A. I and III are correct B. I and IV are correct
C. II and IV are correct D. II and III are correct
92. Which of the following waves / rays are produced by nuclear changes in the atom?
A. infrared rays B. lights waves C. x-rays D. g -rays
93. Aritifical satellites are used for
A. TV transmissionB. Detecting minerals C. Space research D. All the three
94. Sound travels at maximum speed in
A. vacuum B. air C. water D. steel
95. The minimum lengths of a plane mirror in which a person can see himself in full length
should be
A. equal to the person’s height B. Slightly more than his height
C. nearly half of his height D. nearly one fourth of his height
96. If you walk towards a plane mirror at a speed of 1m/s at how fast do you and your image
approach each other?
A. 5 m/s B. 2 cm/s C. 1 m/s D. 4 m/s
97. The normal temperature of human body on the kelvin scale is
A. 280 B. 290 C. 310 D. 340
98. Electron microscopy is advantageous because
A. much greater resolution is possible
B. electrons are used as a source of radiation
C. transmission and scanning types are available
D. all the above mentioned features are combined
99. The phenomenon which cannot be explained by wave theory is
A. reflection B. refraction
C. photo electric emission D. polarisation
100.The half life of a radioactive sample is 20 minutes. What fraction of the sample will remain
undecayed after 80 minutes?
A. 1/16 B. 1/12 C. 1/8 D. 1/4
Answers
1. C 2. D 3. D 4. C 5. B 6. D 7. A 8. B 9. C 10. B 11. D 12. A 13. C 14. C 15. B 16. A 17. D 18. A 19. C 20. B 21. C 22. B 23. C 24. C 25. C 26. C 27. C 28. A 29. A 30. C 31. A 32. A 33. D 34. C 35. C 36. B 37. A 38. A 39. C 40. D 41. B 42. B 43. C 44. A 45. D 46. D 47. A 48. C 49. B 50. C 51. B 52. B 53. C 54. B 55. A 56. C 57. B 58. B 59. C 60. C 61. A 62. B 63. D 64. C 65. B 66. D 67. D 68. C 69. A 70. B 71. A 72. A 73. A 74. C 75. A 76. A 77. B 78. A 79. B 80. A 81. A 82. B 83. D 84. A 85. B 86. B 87. B 88. D 89. D 90. B 91. C 92. D 93. D 94. D 95. C 96. B 97. C (370C, 98.60F) 98. A 99. C 100.A
Every Day Science : Physics Paper 1
1. Who had invented wireless telegraph?
A. J.L.Baird B. Alfred Nobel C. Marconi D. Waterman
2. Who discovered X-Rays?
A. Brequet B. James Watt C. Cavendish D. Roentgen
3. A Photometer is used for the determination of :
A. Altitudes B. Electric Potential
C. Specific gravity D. Intensity of illumination
4. Quantum Theory was discovered by:
A. J. Priestly B. Marconi C. Max Plank D. W.K.Roentgen
5. Which was associated with Fermi?
A. South Pole B. Atomic Bomb C. Wireless Telegraph D. Raman Effect
6. The element of an electric heater is made of :
A. Brass B. Copper C. Iron D. Nichrome
7. The audiable frequency of human ear is between 20 hertz and –––––hertz
A. 20000 B. 15000 C. 2000 D. 200
8. What does a voltmeter measure?
A. Current B. Potential difference C. Resistance D. None of these
9. How does a yellow flower look in red light?
A. Black B. Red C. Orange D. White
10. Two solid bodies A and B float in water. It is observed that A floats with 2/3 of its volume
immersed while B floats with 3/4 of its volume immersed. The densities of A and B are in
the ratio:
A. 9:8 B. 8:9 C. 2:3 D. None of these
11. If the distance between two bodies is halved, the force of gravitation:
A. Decreases slightly B. Remains unchanged
C. Becomes double the previous value D. Becomes four times the previous value
12. The Moon is kept in orbit due to a balance between:
A. Centripetal force and gravitational force
B. Earth’s attraction and Sun’s attraction
C. Centrifugal force and gravitational force
D. None of these
13. The kind of energy stored in a dam is:
A. Heat energy B. Kinetic energy C. Potential energy D. None of these
14. Which is most elastic?
A. Copper B. Steel C. Glass D. None of these
15. Law of Electrolysis was discovered by:
A. Snell B. Faraday C. Dalton D. Kepler
16. Alcohol is used as a thermometric liquid when it is desired to measure:
A. Low temperatures B. High temperatures
C. Very high temperatures D. None of these
17. Water pipes are apt to burst in cold weather because:
A. They contract due to cold weather
B. They expand due to cold weather
C. The water in the pipe cannot evaporate
D. The water in the pipe turns into ice and expands
18. Humidity in air is measured by:
A. Hygrometer B. Hydrometer C. Manometer D. Anemometer
19. Why does ice in sawdust not melt quickly?
A. Sawdust does allow the air to touch the ice
B. The water is absorbed by sawdust
C. Sawdust is a Bad Conductor of heat
D. None of these
20. Why is the rainbow seen after rainfall?
A. There are certain gases after rain
B. As the light passes through rain drops it under goes disperion
C. The atmosphere is clear by rain
D. As the atmosphere is clear light undergoes reflection
21. Grass look green because:
A. It is by nature
B. It reflects green colour
C. It absorbs all the colours of white light except green
D. None of these
22. The weight of a man at the surface of the moon will be only about one-sixth of his weight
on the earth because:
A. Moon has no atmosphere
B. The gravity of moon is about that much less (one-sixth as compared to that of the earth)
C. Moon is very far off from the earth
D. The moon is six times smaller than earth
23. Which one, out of cold, boiling or warm water is a better fire extinguisher?
A. Warm water B. Cold water C. Boiling water D. None of these
24. We can see things more clearly at night when we:
A. Look slightly, below the thing B. Look directly the thing
C. Look out of the side of the eye D. None of these
25. Balloons are filled with hydrogen on account of:
A. Its being colourless B. Its being odourless
C. Its extreme lightness D. None of these
26. Acoustic is the science dealing with the study of:
A. Light B. Space C. Sound D. None of these
27. At which location on the earth will the same object weigh the least?
A. South Pole B. North Pole C. Equator D. None of these
28. Safety match was invented by:
A. Landstrom B. Wilson C. Perkin D. None of these
29. The instrument which measures depth of the ocean is called:
A. Fathometer B. Gravimeter C. Galvanometer D. Altimeter
30. The name of the instrument used for recording sound under water is:
A. Gravimeter B. Hydrometer C. Hydrophone D. Hygrometer
31. Radio Activity was discovered by:
A. Henry Becquerel B. Rutherford
C. Edward Jenner D. Madam Curie
32. The SI unit of temperature is:
A. Kelvin B. Celsius C. Centigrade D. Fahrenheit
33. .......is not used for the production of atomic energy:
A. Radium B. Uranium C. Thorium D. Barium
34. Black Holes are celestrial bodies which have a strong force:
A. Electric B. Magnetic C. Gravitational D. Cosmic
35. X-rays cannot penetrate through
A. Wood B. Aluminium C. Lead D. Iron
36. Light year is the unit of:
A. Velocity B. Distance C. Light D. Time
37. When ion rusts, its weight:
A. Increases B. Decreases
C. Remains the same D. First increases and then decreases
38. ......energy causes least pollution.
A. Solar B. Thermal C. Nuclear D. Chemical
39. Cosmology deals with:
A. Cosmetics B. Medicine C. Universe D. Satellites
40. ........ is not a primary colour.
A. Red B. Blue C. Green D. Yellow
41. The instrument used for detection and measurement of electric current is:
A. Voltmeter B. Galvanometer C. Wattmeter D. Anemometer
42. The lowest temperature theoretically possible is:
A. -278°C B. -273°C C. -270°C D. -237°C
43. Alfred Nobel invented the:
A. Atom bomb B. Machine gun C. Dynamite D. Dynamo
44. The equatorial radius is ....... miles.
A. 3,963 B. 3,693 C. 3,669 D. 3,369
45. If a red object is seen in blue light, it will:
A. Violet B. Red C. Green D. Black
46. Time taken by sunlight to reach the earth is:
A. 15 sec B. 8 sec C. 15 min D. 8 min
47. EEG is related to the:
A. Brain B. Heart C. Eyes D. Kidneys
48. In normal condition, the pace maker of heart is in the :
A. Lymph node B. AV node C. Sinoatrial node D. Sinus Venosus
49. Selenology is the study of:
A. Selenium B. Moon C. Venus D. Mars
50. .........records the intensity of earthquake.
A. Electrograph B. Oscilloscope C. Seismograph D. Spectrograph
51. The minimum velocity required to escape from the earth’s gravitational field is ......km/sec.
A. 11.9 B. 11.2 C. 11.6 D. 11.4
52. What’s the Avagadro’s number?
A. 6.023×1021 B. 6.023×1023 C. 6.023×10° D. 6.023×1025
53. Einstein was awarded the Nobel Prize for (the):
A. Theory of Relativity B. Einstein shift
C. Photoelectric effect D. E = MC2
54. A sudden fall in barometeric pressure indicates:
A. Rain B. Storm C. Hot weather D. Clear sky
55. Unit of work is:
A. Joule B. Dyne C. Pound D. Newton
56. Which day is celebrated as Science Day?
A. September 5th B. November 14th C. February 28th D. None of these
57. Cylindrical lens is used to correct:
A. Myopia B. Astigmatism C. Hypermetropia D. Colour blindness
58. Isotopes of an element have the same:
A. Atomic mass B. Atomic number C. Density D. Atomic weight
59. Who discovered the elivator?
A. Madam Curie B. Einstein C. Elisa Ottis D. Roentgen
60. Which statement is wrong?
A. Iron sinks in water B. Wood floats in water
C. Mercury floats in water D. Iron floats in mercury
61. The instrument for measuring curvature of surface is:
A. Spherometer B. Sphygmo manometer
C. Sphygmoscope D. Spectrometer
62. The instrument for measuring the altitude of the sun is called:
A. Spectrometer B. Sextant C. Spherometer D. Altimeter
63. Which one of the following does a TV remote control unit use to operate a TV set?
A. Light waves B. Sound waves C. Radio waves D. Infrared waves
64. Persistence of vision is the principle behind
A. camera B. spectroscope C. cinema D. periscope
65. The weight of a body is
A. the same everywhere on the surface of the earth
B. maximum at the poles
C. maximum at the equator
D. more on the hills than in the plains
66. Ball pen works on the principle of
A. Viscosity B. Boyle’s law
C. Gravitational force D. Capillarity and surface tension
67. At what temperature a body will not radiate any heat energy?
A. 0°C B. 273°C C. -4°C D. -273°C
68. A telescope and a microscope differ in that
A. both are different instruments
B. telescope has eyepiece with larger focal lengths than the objective
C. telescope has objective of large local lengths and eyepiece of smaller focal lengths.
D. None of these
69. The apparatus used in submarines to give clear view of the objects on the surface of the
ocean or ground is known as
A. periscope B. sectant C. stereoscope D. telescope
70. Which metal is commonly used for making an electromagnet?
A. copper B. iron C. nickel D. cobalt
71. Choke is used to
A. reduce high frequency components of electric signal
B. reduce the low frequency components of electric signal
C. convert AC to DC
D. convert DC to AC
72. The ozone layer protects us from
A. ultra violet rays B. radiowaves C. visual radiation D. infrared radiation
73. An example for second order lever is –––––.
A. Lime Sequeser B. Nail puller C. Ballance D. lu tongs
74. Growth of the baby in the uterus is found using
A. X-rays B. Gamma rays C. Ultra sound D. Ultra violet rays
75. The weather map telecast in T.V.is photographed by the satellite orbitting a height of
A. 36,000 k.m. B. 3,600 k.m. C. 3,600 miles D. 360 k.m.
76. The unit of force is –––––.
A. newton B. joule C. coulomb D. dioptre
77. The shining particles seen in the path of beem from a projector in cinema hall is due to
A. shining particles emanating from projector
B. scattering of light by dust particles in the path of the light
C. brownian movement of the dust
D. electrical properties of dust particles
78. “Decibal” is a unit of
A. sound intensity B. light C. heat D. electricity
79. An example of semi-conductor is
A. German silver B. Germanium C. Phosphorus D. Arsenic
80. Unit of charge is
A. Coulumb B. Faraday C. Ampere D. Volt
81. Atom bomb work for the principle of
A. Nuclear fission B. Nuclear fusion C. Newton’s law D. Faraday’s law
82. Four electro magnetic waves of different wave lengths are given. X-rays, Microwaves,
Ultraviolet, Infrared. Their correct arrangement in the descending order of wave length is
A. X-rays, Ulttraviolet, Infrared and Microwaves
B. Microwaves, Infrared Ultraviolet and X-rays
C. Ultraviolet, Infrared, X-rays and Microwaves
D. Microwaves, X-rays, Infrared and Ultraviolet
83. When light enters a lens (glass) there is a change in
A. wave length B. frequency C. velocity D. both (A) and (C)
84. Hydrogen bomb is based on the principle of
A. Nuclear fusion B. Nuclear fission C. Chemical reaction D. Chain reaction
85. When a wave goes from one place to another it transports
A. matter B. energy C. mass D. nothing
86. A 100 watt bulb will consume one unit of electrical energy in
A. 1 hour B. 10 hours C. one day D. 60 hours
87. The solar system belongs the galaxy called
A. Andromeda nebula B. Milky way
C. Radio galaxy D. Magellanic cloud
88. Which one of the following layers of the atmosphere is responsible for the reflection of
radio waves?
A. troposphere B. stratosphere C. mesosphere D. ionosphere
89. Television was discovered by
A. Becquerrel B. H.J.Bhaba C. Bohr D. J.L. Baird
90. On adding a little antimony to germanium, we get
A. P-type semiconductor B. N-type semiconductor
C. metallic conductor D. intrinsic semiconductor
91. Consider the statements: X - rays
I. are not electromagnetic radiations II. are electromagnetic radiations
III. have longer wave lengths IV. have shorter wave lengths
Of these statements:
A. I and III are correct B. I and IV are correct
C. II and IV are correct D. II and III are correct
92. Which of the following waves / rays are produced by nuclear changes in the atom?
A. infrared rays B. lights waves C. x-rays D. g -rays
93. Aritifical satellites are used for
A. TV transmissionB. Detecting minerals C. Space research D. All the three
94. Sound travels at maximum speed in
A. vacuum B. air C. water D. steel
95. The minimum lengths of a plane mirror in which a person can see himself in full length
should be
A. equal to the person’s height B. Slightly more than his height
C. nearly half of his height D. nearly one fourth of his height
96. If you walk towards a plane mirror at a speed of 1m/s at how fast do you and your image
approach each other?
A. 5 m/s B. 2 cm/s C. 1 m/s D. 4 m/s
97. The normal temperature of human body on the kelvin scale is
A. 280 B. 290 C. 310 D. 340
98. Electron microscopy is advantageous because
A. much greater resolution is possible
B. electrons are used as a source of radiation
C. transmission and scanning types are available
D. all the above mentioned features are combined
99. The phenomenon which cannot be explained by wave theory is
A. reflection B. refraction
C. photo electric emission D. polarisation
100.The half life of a radioactive sample is 20 minutes. What fraction of the sample will remain
undecayed after 80 minutes?
A. 1/16 B. 1/12 C. 1/8 D. 1/4
Answers
1. C 2. D 3. D 4. C 5. B 6. D 7. A 8. B 9. C 10. B 11. D 12. A 13. C 14. C 15. B 16. A 17. D 18. A 19. C 20. B 21. C 22. B 23. C 24. C 25. C 26. C 27. C 28. A 29. A 30. C 31. A 32. A 33. D 34. C 35. C 36. B 37. A 38. A 39. C 40. D 41. B 42. B 43. C 44. A 45. D 46. D 47. A 48. C 49. B 50. C 51. B 52. B 53. C 54. B 55. A 56. C 57. B 58. B 59. C 60. C 61. A 62. B 63. D 64. C 65. B 66. D 67. D 68. C 69. A 70. B 71. A 72. A 73. A 74. C 75. A 76. A 77. B 78. A 79. B 80. A 81. A 82. B 83. D 84. A 85. B 86. B 87. B 88. D 89. D 90. B 91. C 92. D 93. D 94. D 95. C 96. B 97. C (370C, 98.60F) 98. A 99. C 100.A
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GK Questions | Flowers
1. Why does a rose appear red grass green in daylight?
A. Rose absorbs all the constituent colors of white light except red which is reflected to us. Similarly, grass absorbs all colors except green which is reflected t us.
2. What is the national flower of Britain?
A. Rose
3. To which flower family does garlic belong?
A. Lily
4. Which is the biggest Flower in the World?
A. Rafflesia
 |
| Rafflesia |
5. What is the National Flower of Antigua & Barbuda?
A. Dagger's Log (Agave Karatto Miller)
6. What is the National Flower of Argentina?
A. Ceibo (Erythrina crista-galli)
7. What is the National Flower of Armenia?
A. No National Flower
8. What is the National Flower of Australia?
A. Golden Wattle (Acacia pycnantha)
9. What is the National Flower of Austria?
A. Edelweiss (Leontopodium alpinum)
10. What is the National Flower of Azerbaijan?
A. Not Chosen any Flower.
11. What is the National Flower of Bahamas?
A. Yellow Elder or Yellow Cedar (Tecoma stans)
12. What is the National Flower of Bahrain?
A. No National Flower
13. What is the National Flower of Balearic Islands?
A. Carnation (Dianthus caryophyllus)
14. What is the National Flower of Bangladesh?
A. Water Lily (Nymehaea nouchali)
15. What is the National Flower of Barbados?
A. Pride of Barbados, also known as Dwarf Poinciana & Flower Fence (Poinciana pulcherrima
16. What is the National Flower of Belarus?
A. Flax (Linum usitatissimum)
17. What is the National Flower of Belgium?
A. Red Poppy (Papaver rhoeas)
18. What is the National Flower of Belize?
A. Black Orchid (Trichoglottis brachiata)
19. What is the National Flower of Bermuda?
A. Blue-eyed Grass (Sisyrinchium montanum)
20. What is the National Flower of Bhutan?
A. Blue poppy (Meconopsis betonicifolia)
21. What is the National Flower of Bohemia?
A. Thyme (Thymus vulgaris)
22. What is the National Flower of Bolivia?
A. Kantuta (Cantua buxifolia)
23. What is the National Flower of Brazil?
A. Cattleya Orchid (Cattleya labiata)
24. What is the National Flower of British Columbia?
A. Dogwood Tree Flower (Cornus Nuttalli)
25. What is the National Flower of Bulgaria?
A. Rose (Rosa)
26. What is the National Flower of Canada?
A. Maple Leaf (acer)
27. What is the National Flower of Cayman Islands?
A. Wild Banana Orchid (Schomburgkia thomsoniana)
28. What is the National Flower of Chile?
A. Copihue/Chilean Bellflower (Lapageria rosea)
29. What is the National Flower of China?
A. Plum Blossom (Prunus Mei)
30. What is the National Flower of Colombia?
A. Christmas orchid (Cattleya trianae)
31. What is the National Flower of Costa Rica?
A. Guaria Morada (purple orchid) (cattleya skinneri)
32. What is the National Flower of Croatia?
A. Iris Croatica (Hrvatska Perunika)
33. What is the National Flower of Cuba?
A. Butterfly Jasmine (Mariposa)
34. What is the National Flower of Cyprus?
A. Rose (Rosa)
35. What is the National Flower of Czech Republic?
A. Rose (Rosa)
36. What is the National Flower of Denmark?
A. Marguerite Daisy (Argyranthemum frutescens)
37. What is the National Flower of Ecuador?
A. Rose (Rosa)
38. What is the National Flower of Egypt?
A. Lotus (Nymphaea lotus)
39. What is the National Flower of Estonia?
A. Corn-flower or Bachelor's Button Centaurea (cyanus)
40. What is the National Flower of Ethiopia?
A. Calla Lily
41. What is the National Flower of France?
A. Iris (Iris)
42. What is the National Flower of French Polynesia?
A. The Tiare (Gardenia taitensis)
43. What is the National Flower of Finland?
A. Lily-of-the-valley (Convallaria majalis)
44. What is the National Flower of Germany?
A. Knapweed (Centaurea cyanus)
45. What is the National Flower of Greece?
A. Bear's breech (Acanthus mollis)
46. What is the National Flower of Greenland?
A. Willow Herb (Epilobium)
47. What is the National Flower of Guam?
A. Puti Tai Nobiu (Bougainvillea spectabilis)
48. What is the National Flower of Guatemala?
A. White Nun Orchid, or Monja Blanca (Lycaste skinnerialba)
49. What is the National Flower of Guyana?
A. Water Lily (Victoria regia)
50. What is the National Flower of Holland (The Netherlands)?
A. Tulip (Tulipa)
51. What is the National Flower of Honduras?
A. Orchid (Brassavola digbiana)
52. What is the National Flower of Hong Kong?
A. Orchid (Bauhinia blakeana)
53. What is the National Flower of Hungary?
A. Tulip (Tulipa)
54. What is the National Flower of Iceland?
A. Mountain Avens (Dryas octopetala)
55. What is the National Flower of India?
A. Lotus (Nelumbo nucifera)
56. What is the National Flower of Indonesia?
A. 1) Melati (Jasmine) (Jasminum sambac) 2)Moon Orchid (Phalaenopsis amabilis) 3)Rafflesia (Rafflesia arnoldi Indonesia)
57. What is the National Flower of Iran?
A. Red Rose (Rosa)
58. What is the National Flower of Iraq?
A. Rose (Rosa)
59. What is the National Flower of Ireland?
A. Shamrock
60. What is the National Flower of Israel?
A. No National Flower
61. What is the National Flower of Italy?
A. Stylized Lily
62. What is the National Flower of Jamaica?
A. Lignum Vitae, or Wood of Life (Guaiacum sanctum)
63. What is the National Flower of Japan?
A. Chrysanthemum (imperial), Cherry Blossom Sakura
64. What is the National Flower of Jordan?
A. Black Iris (Iris nigricans)
65. What is the National Flower of Laos?
A. Champa Flower(Calophyllum Inophyllum), also known as plumeria.
66. What is the National Flower of Kazakhstan?
A. Lily(Lilium) serves as the Unofficial National Flower.
67. What is the National Flower of Kuwait?
A. Rhanterum epapposum, or locally called Arfaj.
68. What is the National Flower of Kyrgyzstan?
A. Shyrdak Symbols of Kyrgyzstan and also the Tulip.
69. What is the National Flower of Latvia?
A. Oxeye Daisy, or Pipene (Leucanthemum vulgare)
70. What is the National Flower of Lebanon?
A. No National Flower
71. What is the National Flower of Liberia?
A. Pepper
72. What is the National Flower of Libya?
A. Pomegranate blossom
73. What is the National Flower of Lithuania?
A. Rue,or Herb of Grace (Ruta graveolens)
74. What is the National Flower of Luxembourg?
A. Rose (Rosa)
75. What is the National Flower of Madagascar?
A. Poinciana (Delonix regia)
76. What is the National Flower of Maldives?
A. Pink Rose (Rosa)
77. What is the National Flower of Malta?
A. The Maltese Centaury Paleocyanus crasifoleus
78. What is the National Flower of Republic of Moldova ?
A. No Flower has been Designated.
79. What is the National Flower of NewZealand?
A. Kowhai
80. What is the National Flower of Paraguay?
A. Jasmine-of-the-Paraguay
81. What is the National Flower of Peru?
A. Kantuta, Inca magic flower
82. What is the National Flower of Philippines?
A. Sampaguita (Jasminum sambac)
83. What is the National Flower of Poland?
A. Corn Poppy (Papaver rhoeas)
84. What is the National Flower of Portugal?
A. Lavender
85. What is the National Flower of Puerto Rico?
A. Puerto Rican Hibiscus,or Flor de maga (montezuma speciossisima)
86. What is the National Flower of Republic of Molossia?
A. Common Sagebrush (Artemisia tridentata)
87. What is the National Flower of Romania?
A. Dog rose (Rosa canina)
88. What is the National Flower of Russia?
A. Camomile (Matricaria Recutita)
89. What is the National Flower of San Marino?
A. Cyclamen (Cyclamen)
90. What is the National Flower of Scotland?
A. Thistle (Cirsium altissimum)
91. What is the National Flower of Seychelles?
A. Tropicbird Orchid
92. What is the National Flower of Sicily?
A. Carnation(Dianthus caryophyllus)
93. What is the National Flower of Singapore?
A. Vanda Miss Joaquim Orchid
94. What is the National Flower of Slovakia?
A. Rose (Rosa)
95. What is the National Flower of Slovenia?
A. Carnation(Dianthus caryophyllus)
96. What is the National Flower of Spain?
A. Red carnation
97. What is the National Flower of Sri Lanka?
A. Nil Mahanel Water Lily (Nympheae Stellata)
98. What is the National Flower of S. Africa?
A. Protea (Protea cynaroides)
99. What is the National Flower of S.Korea?
A. Rose of Sharon (Moogoonghwa) (Hibiscus syriacus)
100. What is the National Flower of Sweden?
A. Linnea (Linnea Borealis)
101. What is the National Flower of Switzerland?
A. Edelweiss (Leontopodium alpinum)
102. What is the National Flower of Syria?
A. Jasmine
103. What is the National Flower of Tahiti?
A. Tahitian Gardenia (Gardenia Taitensis)
104. What is the National Flower of Taiwan (Republic of China)?
A. Plum blossom (Prunus mei)
105. What is the National Flower of Thailand?
A. Ratchaphruek
106. What is the National Flower of Trinidad and Tobago?
A. Chaconia (Warszewiczia coccinea)
107. What is the National Flower of Tonga?
A. Red-blossomed heilala
108. What is the National Flower of Turkey?
A. Tulip (Tulipa)
109. What is the National Flower of Turkmenistan?
A. Not Yet Selected any Flower.
110. What is the National Flower of Ukraine?
A. Sunflower (Helianthus annuus)
111. What is the National Flower of United States of America?
A. Rose (Rosa)
112. What is the National Flower of United Kingdom (England)?
A. Tudor Rose (Rosa)
113. What is the National Flower of United Kingdom (Wales)?
A. Leek(Babbingtons leek), Daffodil (Narcissus Amaryllidaceae)
114. What is the National Flower of Uruguay?
A. Ceibo Erythrina (crista-galli)
115. What is the National Flower of Uzbekistan?
A. Not Selected any Flower.
116. What is the National Flower of Venezuela?
A. Orchid
117. What is the National Flower of Virgin Islands?
A. Yellow Elder or Yellow Trumpet (Tecoma stans)
118. What is the National Flower of Yemen?
A. Arabian coffee (Coffea arabica)
119. What is the National Flower of Yugoslavia?
A. Lily of the Valley (Convallaria majalis)
120. What is the National Flower of Zimbabwe?
A. Flame Lily (Gloriosa Rothschildiana)
GK Questions | Insects & Worms
1. What does the praying mantis store by the hundreds in oothecas?
A. Eggs.
2. What simple creature is employed to turn organic garbage into "vermicompost"?
A. Worms.
3. How many days can an ant survive under water?
A. Two.
4. What does a bee larva have no chance of becoming if it stops eating royal jelly after three days?
A. A queen bee.
5. What is the longest insect?
A. Giant stick insects are some of the longest insects in the world. In fact, the longest insect on record is a stick insect of the species Pharnacia kirbyi, found living in the rainforests of Borneo, and it can grow up to 20 inches long.
6. Of major insect groups, which are the only ones with just one pair of wings
A. Flies
GK Questions|Birds
1. How many legs do butterflies have?
A. 6 Legs & 2 Pair of Wings
2. Which bird has no wings at all?
A. Kiwi
 |
| Kiwi |
3. Of major insect groups, which are the only ones with just one pair of wings?
A. Flies
4. In which season Deaths of the most of the chickens occur?
A. During the Summer Season
5. Which bird can fly equally either to front side or towards back?
A. Humming Bird.
6. How many years “Emu” birds can lives?
A. 60 years.
7. Which is the largest Bird in the World?
A. Ostrich
8. What two colors are a magpie's feathers?
A. Black and white.
9. The bird which has no wings at all
A. Kiwi
GK Questions | Animals
1. How do bats fly in dark?
A. When bats fly they produce ultrasonic sound waves which are reflected back to them from the obstacles in their way and hence they can fly without difficulty.
2. The name of Alexander's horse was
A. Beucephalus
3. For which fabric is Macclesfield famous?
A. Silk
4. Where would you be if you took your seat on a Howdah ?
A. On An Elephant
5. Who is the Daily Mail’s cartoon dog?
A. Fred Bassett
6. What is the name given to the tail of a fox?
A. Brush
7. What is Tin Tin's dog called?
A. Snowy
8. From which animal does the perfume ingredient ambergris originate?
A. Whale
9. A pullet is the young of which animal?
A. Hen
10. What animal's head did a Minotaur have?
A. (Bull)
11. Which is the flying mammal?
A. Bat
12. What is the name of the animal which has a tongue lower than its body?
A. Chameleon
13. The phenomenon of summer sleep by animals is called
A. Aestivation
14. How many toes do most reptiles have on each foot?
A. 3 Toes.
15. The number of off springs that the pig gives birth at the time of delivery is:
A. 8-10 in number (at a time).
16. Which animal can see it’s image in the mirror?
A. Chimpanzee.
17. Which vitamin helps the animals for early recovery from the wounds?
A. Vitamin “A”.
18. Which thing that is prohibited to be included in the preparation of dog’s food?
A. Fish products.
19. What is the interesting fact or characteristic about Snails?
A. It contains 4 noses.
20. What is the interesting fact or characteristic about Camel’s milk?
A. This milk never forms into curd.
21. What is the interesting fact or characteristic about Chameleon?
A. Even though, it is blind, still it can change its colors and bodily appearance and also adopts itself to the surroundings.
22. What is the interesting fact or characteristic about Snail's Eyes?
A. If we cut the eye of a snail, a new eye will be regenerated in that cut-area.
23. Which is the Largest Land animal?
A. Elephant
24. Which is the Largest man-like ape?
A. Gorilla
25. Which is the Fastest animal?
A. Cheetah
26. Which is the Tallest animal?
A. Giraffe
27. What creature proved to be much faster than a horse in a 1927 race in Sydney, Australia?
A. The Kangaroo.
28. What animal travels at 25 mph under water but finds it easier to toboggan on its belly on land?
A. The penguin.
29. What sea creature can have an eye measuring 16 inches across, the largest in the animal kingdom?
A. A squid.
30. What determines the sex of crocodile embryos--temperature, humidity, or genetics?
A. Temperature.
31. What color are a zebra's black stripes during the first six months of life?
A. Brown.
32. What mollusk was obliged to share its name with the first waterproof watch?
A. The oyster.
33. What animal's flesh, when sun-dried in the Andes, becomes a jerky called charqui?
A. A Llama's.
34. What drug did the University of Pennsylvania animal-behavior clinic prescribe for depressed dogs?
A. Prozac.
35. What amphibians do you raise if your run a ranarium?
A. Frogs.
36. What did the ancient Greeks believe to be a cross between a tiger and a horse?
A. A zebra.
37. What's the term for an adult male pig?
A. Boar.
38. What creature's tongue weighs as much as a full grown elephant?
A. The blue whale's.
39. What creature goes through a period where it gains 10 pounds an hour?
A. A blue whale.
40. What rodents, believed to have great teeth, did ancient Romans often place live on the gums of a toothache sufferer?
A. Mice.
41. What type of whale can dive over 2,000 feet?
A. The sperm whale.
42. What's the most common trick a pet dog can perform?
A. Sit.
43. Why do whales spout?
A. To Breath. All whales have to surface to breath and when they exhale they produce a "spout" of moist, warm air from blowholes on the top of their heads. The different whale species can be distinguished by the size and shape of their spout.
44. Which is the flying mammal
A. Bat
45. What is the name of the animal which has a tongue lower than its body
A. Chameleon
46. Animals that creep, are called
A. Reptiles
GK Questions | Full Forms|Digital TV
1. What is the full form or meaning of "Adaptation Field" in Digital TV technology?
A. Ancillary program data (especially PCR) which are uncoded and are transmitted at least every 100ms acc. to MPEG2 or 40 ms acc. to DVB specifications
2. What is the full form or meaning of "BAT" in Digital TV technology?
A. Bouquet Association Table (Table describing a bouquet of programs offered by a broadcaster)
3. What is the full form or meaning of "Block" in Digital TV technology?
A. 8x8 pixel block, MPEG2 coded
4. What is the full form or meaning of "CA" in Digital TV technology?
A. Conditional Access (Information of whether the program is scrambled)
5. What is the full form or meaning of "CAT" in Digital TV technology?
A. Conditional Access Table (PID=1: Reference to scrambled programs)
6. What is the full form or meaning of "CIF" in Digital TV technology?
A. Common Intermediate Format (Picture format)
7. What is the full form or meaning of "CRC" in Digital TV technology?
A. Cyclic Redundancy Check
8. What is the full form or meaning of "DCT" in Digital TV technology?
A. Discrete Cosine Transform
9. What is the full form or meaning of "DCT-1 / IDCT" in Digital TV technology?
A. Inverse Discrete Cosine Transform
10. What is the full form or meaning of "DFD" in Digital TV technology?
A. Displaced Frame Difference (Differential picture if there is motion)
11. What is the full form or meaning of "DPCM" in Digital TV technology?
A. Differential Pulse Code Modulation
12. What is the full form or meaning of "DTS" in Digital TV technology?
A. Decoding Time Stamp (Stamp for decoding time, only transmitted if not identical with PTS; reference to PID)
13. What is the full form or meaning of "EIT" in Digital TV technology?
A. Elementary Stream (Compressed data stream for video, audio or data. Preliminary stage to PES)
14. What is the full form or meaning of "GOP" in Digital TV technology?
A. Group of Pictures
15. What is the full form or meaning of "I, P, and B pictures" in Digital TV technology?
A. Intra-coded pictures (I), predicted pictures (P) and bidirectional prediction pictures (B)
16. What is the full form or meaning of "IRD" in Digital TV technology?
A. Integrated Receiver Decoder (Receiver with (MPEG) decoder)
17. What is the full form or meaning of "MPEG" in Digital TV technology?
A. Motion Picture Experts Group (sometimes called Moving Picture Experts Group)
18. What is the full form or meaning of "MUSICAM" in Digital TV technology?
A. Masking Pattern Adapted Universal Subband Integrated Coding and Multiplexing (Compression method for audio coding)
19. What is the full form or meaning of "NIT" in Digital TV technology?
A. Network Information Table (Information about orbit,transponder etc.)
20. What is the full form or meaning of "PAT" in Digital TV technology?
A. Program Association Table (List of all the programs contained in TS Multiplex with reference to PID of PMT)
21 What is the full form or meaning of "Pay Load" in Digital TV technology?
A. Useful data in TS
22. What is the full form or meaning of "PCM" in Digital TV technology?
A. Pulse Code Modulation
23. What is the full form or meaning of "PCR" in Digital TV technology?
A. Program Clock Reference (Reference in TS for the 27-MHz clock recovery. Transmitted at least every 0.1 sec)
24. What is the full form or meaning of "PES" in Digital TV technology?
A. Packetized Elementary Stream
25. What is the full form or meaning of "PID" in Digital TV technology?
A. Packet Identification (Identification of programs in the transport stream)
26. What is the full form or meaning of "PMT" in Digital TV technology?
A. Program Map Table (Reference to packets with PCR Name of programs, copyright, reference of the data streams with PIDs etc. belonging to the relevant program)
27. What is the full form or meaning of "PS" in Digital TV technology?
A. Program Stream (Multiplex of several audio and video PES using the same clock.)
28. What is the full form or meaning of "RLC" in Digital TV technology?
A. Run Length Coding (Coding of data with different number of bits. Frequently reoccurring data has the smallest number of bits, data seldom reoccurring have the highest number of bits.
29. What is the full form or meaning of "RST" in Digital TV technology?
A. Running Status Table (Accurate and fast adaptation to a new program run if time changes occur in the schedule)
30. What is the full form or meaning of "SCR" in Digital TV technology?
A. System Clock Reference
31. What is the full form or meaning of "STC" in Digital TV technology?
A. System Time Clock
32. What is the full form or meaning of "UTC" in Digital TV technology?
A. Universal Time, Coordinated (Greenwich meantime)
33. What is the full form or meaning of "ADSL" in Digital TV technology?
A. Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line (A COFDM-coded digital data stream with a rate up to 8 Mbit/s (down stream) and 1 Mbit/s (up stream) is transmitted via telephone lines, mainly for video on demand.)
34. What is the full form or meaning of "ATSC" in Digital TV technology?
A. Advanced Television Systems Committee (american standardization group for digital terrestrial transmission)
35. What is the full form or meaning of "CNR" in Digital TV technology?
A. Carrier to Noise Ratio (Indicates how far the noise level is down on carrier level)
36. What is the full form or meaning of "COFDM" in Digital TV technology?
A. Coded Orthogonal Frequency Domain Multiplex
37. What is the full form or meaning of "DVB" in Digital TV technology?
A. Digital Video Broadcasting (Broadcasting TV signals to a digital standard)
38. What is the full form or meaning of "DVB-C" in Digital TV technology?
A. Digital Video Broadcasting-Cable (Broadcasting TV signals to a digital standard by cable)
39. What is the full form or meaning of "DVB-S" in Digital TV technology?
A. Digital Video Broadcasting-Satellite (Broadcasting TV signals to digital standard via satellite)
40. What is the full form or meaning of "DVB-T" in Digital TV technology?
A. Digital Video Broadcasting-Terrestrial (Terrestrial broadcasting of TV signals to digital standard)
41. What is the full form or meaning of "16 VSB" in Digital TV technology?
A. Vestigial Side Band (Modulation High Data Rate mode especially for Cable Systems)
42. What is the full form or meaning of "PTC" in Digital TV technology?
A. Physical Transmission Channel
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