Model Question Papers : Deputy Collector Examination | Genral English 0001

 PRACTICE TEST :10

Spot the error:
1. (A) It is high time / (B) that we send / (C) the answer. / (D) no error

2. (A) Most of/ (B) people / (C) agree with me. / (D) no error

3. (A) Bread and butter / (B) is / (C) wholesome food. / (D) no error

4. (A) Can you / (B) mend this / (C) until Tuesday. / (D) no error

5. (A) Please explain / (B) me what / (C) you want. / (D) no error

6. (A) My brother / (B) has got / (C) a new work. / (D) no error

7. (A) The police / (B) is looking / (C) for him. / (D) no error

8. (A) I have / (B) big respect / (C) for her ideas. / (D) no error

9. (A) I ‘II / see / (B) you / (C) a few days later. / (D) no error



Fill up the blanks:
10. He dares to face him ,————
(A) dare n’ t he ? (B) doesn’t he ? (C) does he ? (D) dare he?

11. I am —————— for your help.
(A) thankful (B) grateful (C) sincerely (D) none of these

12. I am ————— happy and distressed .
(A) alternatively (B) alternately (C) alternative (D) alternate

13. I sat ———— ———— —————.
(A) quiet, in the corner, for an hour (B) in the corner, quiet, for an hour
(C) for an hour, quiet, in the corner (D) for an hour, in the corner, quiet

14. He has got a car —— a motorbike.
(A) as if (B) as well as (C) even (D) as far as

15. A stitch in time saves ————.
(A) many (B) much (C) a lot (D) nine.

16. There won’t be any trouble, —————?
(A) will there (B) shall there (C) won’t there (D) can’t there

17. Fish is reared in ————.
(A) stream (B) river (C) sea (D) aquarium

18. Young one of a goat is ————.
(A) calf (B) kid (C) colt (D) cub

19. ————— is a carnivorous animal.
(A) Donkey (B) Horse (C) Elephant (D) Lion

20. A ——— of stars.
(A) band (B) team (C) troupe (D) constellation

21. Which word is correctly spelt.?
(A) occasion (B) ocassion (C) occassion (D) occation

22. “Are you happy?” This is an ———— sentence.
(A) assertive (B) imperative (C) exclamatory (D) interrogative

23. “Vis – a Vis” means :
(A) direct (B) opposite (C) private (D) personal

24. Something no longer in use.
(A) desolate (B) absolute (C) obsolete (D) primitive

25. Which of the following is a correct plural noun:
(A) Notary publics (B) Notaries Public (C) Woman Doctors (D) Man Servants

26. _______ jealous can be dangerous.
(A) a (B) this (C) an (D) not necessary

27. She is determined ——— completing her studies.
(A) on (B) with (C) in (D) of

28. Synonym of “anger”:
(A) rage (B) pleasant (C) happy (D) love

29. The antonym of “deficit” is:
(A) credit (B) debit (C) surplus (D) inflate

30. We won’t go out unless it ——— raining.
(A) stopping (B) is stopped (C) is stop (D) stops

31. The girls ——— he praised were delighted.
(A) whom (B) which (C) where (D) who

32. Rashid was sorry when he ——— of your illness.
(A) heard (B) hearing (C) will hear (D) shall hear

33. When they went home late they found that burglars ——— into their house.
(A) is breaking (B) has broken (C) had broken (D) breaking

34. The meaning of “weary” is:
(A) causing tiredness (B) showing firmness (C) bearing marks (D) enthusiasm

35. I expressed the hope that he might ——— recover.
(A) speedy (B) speeding (C) speed (D) speedily

36. Please use my knife to cut it ————.
(A) to (B) at (C) with (D) of

37. In the suitcase I found ———— shirt.
(A) a white old cotton (B) a cotton white old (C) an old white cotton (D) a cotton shirt white

38. ———— tired, Raju went to bed early.
(A) been (B) Being (C) Be (D) Has been

39. As Shirly was walking too fast, I could not ——— with her.
(A) keep up (B) keep (C) keep at (D) keep back

40. Which of the following is wrongly spelt?
(A) anarchy (B) slunk (C) trespass (D) hilareous

ANSWERS
1. B 2. B 3. D 4. C 5. B 6. C 7. B 8. B 9. C 10. B 11. A 12. B 13. A 14. B 15. D 16. A 17. D 18. A 19. D 20. D 21. A 22. D 23. B 24. C 25. B 26. D 27. A 28. A 29. C 30. D 31. A 32. A 33. C 34. A 35. D
36. C 37. C 38. B 39. A 40. D

Model Question Papers : Deputy Collector Examination : General English 0002

 PRACTICE TEST :11

Find out the error
1. (A) Everybody among the business men were enjoying drinking / (B) when the manager of the hotel
/ (C) was shot dead. (D) no error

2. (A) He behaves as if/ (B) he was / (C) a king. / (D) no error

3. (A)He admitted/(B)that he was (C) in wrong./(D) no error

4. (A) Six miles / (B) are a long/ (C) long distance / (D) no error

5. (A) Don ‘t make / (B) fool / (C) of me. / (D) no error

6. (A) I have been / (B) waiting for/ (C) one and a half hour. / (D) no error

7. (A) I have lain awake / (B) a good many night / (C) worrying about you. (D) no error

8. (A) It / (B) is often raining / (C) here. / (D) no error

9. (A) You / (B) had better / (C) to see the doctor. / (D) no error

10. (A) I use to play / tennis I (C) at weekends. / (D) no error

11. (A) No sooner did / (B) he arrived the station when / (C) the train began to move. / (D) no error


Fill up the blanks:
12. She has always had ————- distrust of strangers.
(A) deep (B) the deep (C) a deep (D) an deep

13. Had he applied, he ———— the job.
(A) would get (B) gets (C) would have got (D) will get

14. He reads —— too quickly.
(A) fairly (B) rather (C) less (D) none of these

15. He came ———.
(A) late (B) lately (C) latest (D) none of these

16. You had better ——— a doctor.
(A) consulted (B) to consult (C) consult (D) had consulted

17. He would rather——— him.
(A) meet (B) had met (C) to meet (D) none of these

18. He enjoys——— .
(A) to swim (B) swim (C) swimming (D) swam

19. ——— the policeman the thief ran away.
(A) saw (B) see (C) seeing (D) seen

Provide prepositions:
20. The manager was approved ——— my plan .
(A) of (B) at (C) in (D) with

21. He has great aversion ——— meat eating .
(A) to (B) at (C) in (D) with

22. I have no sympathy ———— the ruined fellow .
(A) at (B) for (C) in (D) to

23. He suffered ——— want of money .
(A) from (B) at (C) in (D) on

24. She is usually seen ———— white saree.
(A) with (B) on (C) in (D) by

25. The teacher dressed the student ————.
(A) down (B) in (C) up (D) on

26. Presenting a dagger ———— me, the robber demanded money.
(A) to (B) at (C) with (D) towards

Fill up the blanks:
27. The ——— of the lion is loud and fearsome.
(A) chirping (B) wail (C) roar (D) cry

28. When I first met him, he ———— in a hotel.
(A) had been working (B) has been working (C) was working (D) worked

29. So far 50 people have ———— in the fighting.
(A) dead (B) death (C) died (D) none of these

30. I have to blame ———— for his failure.
(A) myself (B) mine (C) my own (D) me

31. Let’s start the work,———— ?
(A) don’t we (B) do we (C) isn’t it (D) shall we

32. Select the word meaning ‘small branch’:
(A) bit (B) stick (C) twig (D) log

33. Will you return asked John (Choose the right punctuation)
(A) “Will you return,” asked John (B) “Will you return? asked John.
(C) “Will you return?” asked John. (D) “Will you return?” asked John

34. The play was so ———— that the audience laughed all through it.
(A) ludicrous (B) ludicroose (C) ludicruous (D) ludecrous

35. I ——— him yesterday.
(A) had met (B) have met (C) met (D) none of these

36. He used to visit his father, ———— ?
(A) doesn’t he (B) does he (C) didn’t he (D) did he

37. Open the door, ———— ?
(A) don’t we (B) will you (C) shall we (D) do we

38. Run fast lest you ——— miss the train.
(A) shall (B) would (C) could (D) should

39. That is ———— utopian idea.
(A) of (B) an (C) a (D) by

40. Let’s play, ————?
(A) do we (B) shall we (C) will we (D) can’t we

ANSWERS
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. B 6. C 7. B 8. B 9. C 10. A 11. B 12. C 13. C 14. B 15. A 16. C 17. A 18. C 19. C 20. A 21. A 22. B 23. A 24. C 25. A 26. A 27. C 28. C 29. C 30. A 31. D 32. C 33. B 34. A 35. C
36. C 37. B 38. D 39. C 40. B

Model Question Papers : Deputy Collector Examination| Indian Constitution001

 PRACTICE TEST :05

1. Which one of the following rights is vital for the successful working democracy?
A. Right to property B. Right to association
C. Right to assemble D. Right to criticise

2. In the Committees of Indian Parliament which has the largest membership?
A. The Public Accounts Committee B. The Committee on Public undertakings
C. Committee on rules D. Estimates Committee

3. Who can declare a law as null and void?
A. Sessions Court B. High Court C. Supreme Court D. None of these

4. Panchayat Raj scheme was first introduced in
A. Rajasthan B. West Bengal C. Madhya Pradesh D. Tamil Nadu

5. The candidate contesting for the Lok Sabha should not be less than
A. 21 years B. 18 years C. 22 years D. 25 years

6. The method amendment of the Indian constitution has been borrowed from the
A. Constitution of USA B. Constitution of England
C. Constitution of USSR D. Constitution of South Africa

7. The grant of universal adult franchies creates
A. social equality B. legal equality
C. economic equality D. political equality

8. The Vice-President of India holds office
A. during the pleasure of the president B. for a term of 5 years
C. for a term of 4 years D. during the pleasure of the Prime Minister

9. The system of dual citizenship exists in
A. USA B. France C. India D. U.K.

10. Who has to approve state legislation?
A. The President B. The Union Government
C. The Parliament D. The Governor

11. India’s one rupee note bears the signature of
A. The President B. The Governor of RBI
C. The Prime Minister D. The Finance Secretary

12. The Indian federation can be converted into unitary one
A. at the time of general election B. by two-thirds majority of the Parliament
C. during national emergency D. by the order of the President



13. The Prime Minister of India is
A. elected by the Lok sabha
B. elected by the two houses of Parliament at a joint sitting
C. appointed by the President
D. elected by the Lok Sabha and appointed by the President

14. India is a
A. Democratic form of Government
B. Monarchy form of Government
C. Democratic and Republic form of Government
D. None of these

15. Indian constitution is
A. an original constiution B. a bag of borrowings
C. not a copy of other constitution D. none of these

16. Who hoists the flag on Independence Day at Delhi Fort?
A. President B. Vice-President C. Prime Minister D. Chief Justice

17. To whom are the Ministers individually responsible?
A. The President B. The Prime Minister C. The Lok Sabha D. The people

18. In India, the President enjoys
A. all the power B. only nominal powers
C. less power D. more powers than the Prime Minister

19. Policies are implemented by
A. parliament B. judiciary C. executive D. none of these

20. How much time did it take to make the Indian Constitution?
A. 2 years 10 months and 18 days B. 2 years 11 months and 18 days
C. 2 years 6 months and 18 days D. 2 years 2 months and 10 days

21. The union council of Ministers is the
A. real executive of the country
B. nominal executive of the country
C. neither nominal nor real executive of the country
D. none of these

22. A bureaucrat can exercise his political liberty by
A. exercising his franchise B. publicly criticizing the government
C. contesting in the election D. joining in any political party

23. Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian constitution?
A. Dr. Ambedkar B. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
C. Sardar Patel D. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

24. If the Auditor-General wants to resign he addresses his letter of resignation to
A. The President B. The Prime Minister
C. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha D. None of these

25. The basic purpose of Panchayat Raj is
A. to give posts for party members
B. democratic decentralisation
C. to collect taxes directly
D. to give employment to local people

26. Constitutionally members of the councils of Ministers hold office
A. during the pleasure of the President B. during the pleasure of the Speaker
C. during the pleasure of the Parliament D. during the pleasure of the Prime Minister

27. In India, rule of law means
A. Government officials have a different law
B. Politicians are beyond the scope of law
C. Prime minister is above law
D. All are equal before the law

28. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is
A. elected by the members of Lok Sabha from amongst themselves
B. elected by the members of Lok Sabha from outside the house
C. nominated by the President in consultation with the Prime Minister
D. appointed by the Prime Minister in consultation with the leaders of opposition parties

29. What is the tenure of a member of Rajya sabha?
A. 5 years B. 3 years C. 4 years D. 6 years

30. The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of
A. Planning Commission B. Rajya Sabha
C. Finance Commission D. Parliamentary affairs

31. Sikkim was merged with Indian union in the year
A. 1975 B. 1980 C. 1950 D. 1976

32. The salaries of the judges of the Supreme court are drawn from
A. Provision made by the Law Minister B. Parliamentary - grant
C. Consolidated fund of India D. Home Ministry grant

33. The resignation letter of the Vice-President shall be addressed to the
A. President B. Council of Ministers
C. Prime Minister D. Chief election commissioner

34. How many schedules are there in the Indian constitution?
A. ten B. nine C. twelve D. fifteen

35. Who is the head of State Government?
A. The Governor B. The Prime Minister
C. The Chief Minister D. None of these

36. The judge of a High court is appointed by
A. The Prime Minister B. The President
C. The Governor D. The Chief Justice

37. In Indian Parliamentary Government
A. the ministers are not the members of the Parliament.
B. the ministers are the members of Lok sabha only
C. the ministers are the members of the Parliament
D. the ministers are the members of Rajya sabha only

38. Who is legally competent to declare war?
A. The President B. The Prime Minister
C. The Parliament D. The Lok Sabha

39. Which one of the following qualifications of the judges of the Supreme Court has been
wrongly Listed?
A. He must be a citizen of India
B. He has been an advocates of a High court for atleast ten years
C. He has been a judge of a High court for atleast five years
D. He has worked as Comptroller & Auditor General of India for atleast three years

40. Emergency due to failure of constitutional machinery of a state can be declared by the
President under
A. Article 356 B. Article 352 C. Article 350 D. Article 360

41. What is the time limit set by the constitution for the President to declare his assent to a
bill?
A. fourteen days B. one month C. three months D. No time limit

42. Money bill can be introduced
A. only in the Lok Sabha B. only in the Rajya Sabha
C. both in Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha D. None of these

43. The Union Public Service Commission submits an annual report of its work to
A. The President B. The Cabinet Secretariat
C. The Home Minister D. The Parliament

44. How many regional languages are recognised by the constitution at present?
A. 18 B. 16 C. 15 D. 22

45. The term ‘Fourth Estate’ is connected with
A. judiciary B. press C. police D. landlords

46. Which is NOT a state subject?
A. Banking B. Local Government C. Law & order D. Water supply

47. The Chairman of the public accounts committee ‘is appointed by the
A. President B. Speaker C. Prime Minister
D. Comptroller and Auditor General of India

48. Who was the Deputy Prime Minister when Morarji Desai was the Prime Minister?
A. Jag Jeevan Ram B. Y.B.Charan C. H.N.Bahuguna D. Raj Narain

49. The lowest unit in the Panchayat Raj institution is
A. Village Panchayat B. Panchayat samiti C. Zilla parishad D. Corporation

50. Article 356 enables the President
A. to make any state to come under his rule B. to dissolve the Lok Sabha
C. to dismiss any Union Minister D. to dismiss the Chief Justice of India

51. The constitution assembly was set up in
A. 1946 B. 1947 C. 1948 D. 1950

52. Abraham Lincoln is known for
A. Land reforms
B. External policies
C. Abolition of slavery
D. Independence movement

53. Which one of the following articles of the constitution of India directs state Government
to organise village panchayats?
A. Article 32 B. Article 40 C. Article 48 D. Article 51

54. Preventive detention beyond three months requires authorisation from
A. The Chief Justice of High Court
B. Advocate General
C. Attorney General
D. An Advisory Board

55. The Secretary General of the house of the people is answerable only to the
A. Speaker B. Prime Minister C. Cabinet D. Chief Secretary

56. Panchayat samiti exists at
A. Village level B. block level C. zilla level D. all these levels

57. The maximum strength of the nominated members in both the houses of Parliament
can be
A. 10 B. 12 C. 14 D. 20
58. India’s foreign policy is based on
A. Eastern block B. Western block C. Non-alignment D. None of these

59. Who summons the state legislation?
A. The Chief Minister B. The Governor
C. The President D. The Speaker

60. On what grounds can a judge be removed?
A. insolvency misdemeanour B. insanity
C. incapacity D. All the above

61. The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is
A. The President B. The Vice-President
C. The Prime Minister D. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha

62. Who conceived the concept of Gram Swaraj?
A. Jaya Prakash Narain B. Acharya Vinoba Bhave
C. Mahatma Gandhi D. Swami Dayanand

63. Appointments to All-India service are made by
A. The Prime Minister
B. The President
C. The Governor
D. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha

64. Who regulates the right of citizenship by law?
A. The Supreme court
B. The Parliament
C. The Cabinet
D. The President

65. The concept of judicial review was borrowed from
A. U.S.A B. Britain C. France D. Ireland

66. Who determines the term of office of a Governor?
A. President B. Prime Minister C. Chief Minister D. Constitution

67. The total number of Legislative states in India are
A. 35 B. 20 C. 14 D. 28

68. The law member was made a full member of Executive council of the Governor General
as per the charter act of
A. 1813 B. 1873 C. 1853 D. 1793

69. Indian constitution is
A. purely federal
B. purely unitary
C. federal with unitary bias
D. unitary with federal bias

70. The Rajya Sabha member must have completed the age of
A. 21 years B. 25 years C. 30 years D. 35 years

71. Maximum number of seats in the Rajya Sabha is in
A. Andhra Pradesh B. Bihar C. Uttar Pradesh D. West Bengal


72. In the Parliamentary Government of India
A. the ministers have a fixed tenure
B. the ministers cannot be removed by vote of no confidence
C. the ministers can be removed by vote of no confidence
D. the ministers are answerable to the president only

73. Which amendment is called as mini constitution?
A. 42nd B. 43rd C. 52nd D. 39th

74. To whom are mercy petitions addressed?
A. The Governor B. The President
C. The Supreme Court Chief Justice D. The Prime Minister

75. Tribal areas are specified in the
A. 6th schedule B. 8th schedule C. 9th schedule D. 1st schedule`

76. The legislature in India is based on the pattern of
A. Britain B. America C. France D. Germany

77. The Rajya Sabha does not enjoy equal powers with Lok Sabha with regard to
A. the election of the Speaker
B. the election of the Vice - President
C. the impeachment of the President
D. the election of the President

78. Match the correct features of the constitution with the country from which they have
been borrowed.
A. Rule of law - USA
B. Judicial review - Australia
C. Idea of concurrent subjects - England
D. Directive principles of state policy - Ireland

79. The Parliamentary form of Government in India has been borrowed from the
A. American Constitution
B. British Constitution
C. Russian Constitution
D. Swiss Constitution

80. Diet is the Parliament of
A. U.K. B. Japan C. France D. U.S.A

81. Finance commissions are constituted by the President
A. to recommended the basis for the distribution of proceeds of taxes between the union
and the states
B. to recommended the basis of which should govern the grants-in-aid for the states
C. to prepare the annual financial statement
D. both (A) and (B) are correct

82. Who was the first law officer of the Government of India?
A. The Law Minister B. The Chief Justice of the Supreme court
C. The Attorney General of India D. None of these

83. The controversial article in the Indian constitution is
A. Article 356 B. Article 368 C. Article 370 D. Article 352

84. The speaker can be removed from his office before the expiry of his term
A. by the President on the recommendation of Prime Minister
B. if the house passes a resolution to the effect
C. if the house and the Prime Minister so decide
D. If both the houses of Parliament pass resolution to this effect.

85. Where the disputes regarding the election of the President of India settled?
A. in the Parliament
B. in the Lok Sabha
C. in the Rajya Sabha
D. in the Supreme Court

86. The permanent seat of Supreme court is at
A. Mumbai B. Kolkata C. Delhi D. Kanpur

87. In India the election commission works under
A. Ministry of law
B. Prime Minister’s Secretariat
C. It is an autonomous boy
D. Ministry of Home Affairs

88. The Governor has no power to
A. prorogue the assembly
B. dissolve the assembly
C. adjourn the assembly
D. summon the assembly

89. The President of India must have completed the age of
A. 25 years B. 35 years C. 30 years D. 58 years

90. Who chooses the Speaker?
A. The Lok Sabha
B. The President
C. The Prime Minister
D. To opposition parties in Lok Sabha

91. Which one of the following amendments added the fundamental duties in the constitution
of India?
A. 42nd Amendment
B. 44th Amendment
C. 48th Amendment
D. 49th Amendment

92. Which of the following articles of the Constitution of India creates the office of the
Comptroller and Auditor - General?
A. Article 143 B. Article 147 C. Article 148 D. Article 201

93. Balwan Rai Mehta Committee was set up in the year
A. 1950 B. 1952 C. 1955 D. 1958

94. The Speaker of the Lok sabha is
A. nominated by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister
B. nominated by the Prime Minister
C. elected by the members of Lok sabha
D. nominated by the ex-speaker of Lok sabha

95. The President can be removed from his office through impeachment by the
A. Lok Sabha
B. Supreme Court of India
C. Two houses of Parliament
D. Council of Ministers

96. The member of the Rajya sabha are elected by the
A. people B. state assemblies C. local bodies D. lok sabha

97. The portfolios are assigned to the ministers by
A. The Prime Minister
B. The Chief Justice of India
C. The Speaker
D. The Vice-President

98. Which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution is related to the protection of the
interest of minorities?
A. Article 256 B. Article 29 C. Article 370 D. Article 22

99. The normal term of a Governor’s office is
A. 3 years B. 5 years C. 6 years D. 4 years

100. The salaries of judges are paid out of
A. Contigency fund B. Amalgamated fund
C. Consolidated fund D. No special fund

ANSWERS
1. D 2. D 3. C 4. A 5. D 6. D 7. D 8. B 9. A 10. D 11. B 12. C 13. D 14. C 15. B 16. C 17. C 18. B 19. A 20. B 21. A 22. A 23. A 24. A 25. B 26. C 27. D 28. A 29. D 30. B 31. A 32. C 33. A 34. C 35. A 36. D 37. C 38. A 39. D 40. A 41. D 42. A 43. A 44. D 45. B 46. A 47. B 48. A 49. A 50. A 51. A 52. C 53. B 54. A 55. A 56. A 57. C 58. C 59. B 60. D 61. B 62. C 63. B 64. B 65. A 66. A 67. D 68. C 69. A 70. C 71. C 72. C 73. A 74. B 75. A 76. A 77. A 78. D 79. B 80. B 81. D 82. C 83. A 84. B 85. D 86. C 87. C 88. C 89. B 90. A 91. A 92. C 93. C 94. C 95. C 96. B 97. A 98. B 99. B 100. C

Model Question Papers : Deputy Collector Examination| Geography - PRACTICE TEST :0001

1. A huge mass of ice fed by snow on a high mountain, slowly sliding downhill before it starts
melting, is called a/an
A. avalanche B. glacier C. iceberg D. typhoon
2. The Karakoram Pass links

A. Afghanistan and Pakistan B. China and Pakistan
C. China and India D. Afghanistan and Iran

3. The highest mountain peak situated in India is
A. Annapurna B. Mt. Everest
C. Godwin Austen (K.2) D. Nanda Devi

4. A permanent Seismological Observatory is located at
A. Latur B. Pune C. Shillong D. Siliguri

5. the area of our globe that lies between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn is
called
A. Frigid zone B. North Temperate zone
C. Torrid zone D. South Temperate zone

6. Which State is at the most eastern part of India?
A. Assam B. Arunachal Pradesh C. Nagaland D. Manipur

7. Which one of the following mountain ranges is spread over only one state in India?
A. Ajanta B. Sahyadri C. Satpura D. Aravalli

8. The 180th meridian of the International Dateline has
A. eastward deviation B. westward deviation
C. both eastward and westward deviations
D. no deviation

9. Which of the following States leads in the production of groundnut in India?
A. Andhra Pradesh B. Gujarat C. Maharashtra D. Rajasthan

10. In which of the following regions plantation agriculture is largely practised?
A. Semi-arid B. Subtropical C. Tropical D. Temperate

11. The tropic of Cancer passes through
A. Tripura and Mizoram B. Tripura and Manipur

C. Manipur and Nagaland D. Meghalaya and Arunachal Pradesh

12. The Paithan (Jayakwadi) Hydroelectric project, completed with the help of Japan, is on the
river
A. Ganges B. Cauveri C. Narmada D. Godavari

13. The “girdle of fire” refers to the ring of volcanoes around the
A. Pacific B. Mediterranean C. Atlantic D. Indian Ocean

14. Which of the following practices of cultivation can be referred to as crop rotation?
A. same crop in different seasons in the same field
B. Same crop in the same season in different fields
C. Different crops in different seasons in the same field
D. Different crops in the same season in different fields

15. The Taiga belt lies between the
A. Temperate grasslands and Tundra B. Mediterranean climate andTundra
C. Monsoon climate and Tundra D. Tibet - type climate and Tundra

16. The area most susceptible to earthquakes is the
A. Mexican belt B. Himalayan belt C. Circum-Pacific belt D. Mediterranean belt

17. The Hundroo Falls are formed on
A. The Indravathi B. The Cauvery C.The Narmada D. The Subarnarekha

18. Equinox occurs when the Sun is vertically above the
A. equator B. tropic of Capricorri C. tropic of Cancer D. Poles

19. Measured from the appropriate base line, the territorial waters of India extend into the sea
to a distance of
A. 8 nautical miles B. 12 nautical miles C. 16 nautical miles D. 20 nautical miles

20. The spatial variations in the wind velocity in a weather map can be best explained by a
reference to the distribution of
A. barometric gradient B. cyclones and depressions
C. fronts and air masses D. highs and lows

21. Fog formation is encouraged when
A. an inversion of temperature occurs at or near the surface
B. a strong surface wind blows
C. the sky is overcast
D. a thunderstorm engulfs the area

22. Maximum human population belongs to the
A. Australoid B. Negroid C. Mongoloid D. Caucasoid

23. High temperature and heavy rainfall provide ideal conditions for cultivation of one of our
principal foodgrain crops in the coastal and eastern India. This crop is
A. Maize B. Millets C. Rice D. Wheat

24. Which of the following States has the longest coastline?
A. Andhra Pradesh B. Kerala C. Maharashtra D. Tamil Nadu

25. India exports all of the following except
A. Copper B. Manganese C. Mineral oil D. Iron ore

26. Trade winds of the northern hemisphere blow from the north-east to south-west due to
A. coriolis force B. gravitational force C. centripetal force D. centrifugal force

27. Erosion of soil by a river mainly depends upon
A. Its depth B. Its length
C. The speed at which it flows D. Its width

28. The oldest oil refinery in India is at
A. Digboi (in Assam) B. Haldia (near Calcutta)
C. Koyali (near Baroda) D. Noonmati (in Assam)

29. Which of the following foodgrain crops occupies the largest part of the cropped area in
India?
A. Barley and maize B. Jowar and bajra
C. Rice D. Wheat

30. The daily and annual range of temperature is maximum in the
A. Savanna grassland B. Temperate grassland
C. Hot desert D. Equatorial region

31. The highest density of population is in the State of
A. Kerala B. Madhya Pradesh C. Uttar Pradesh D. West Bengal

32. India’s land border with the neighbouring countries is, in length, nearly
A. 10 thousand km B. 12 thousand km C. 15 thousand km D. 17 thousand km

33. Oil seeds are grown in all parts of India. From which of the following oilseeds do we
extract the largest quantity of edible oil?
A. Cotton seeds B. Groundnut
C. Mustard and rapeseed D. Safflower

34. Which one of the following is our most important cash crop
A. Cotton B. Jowar C. Paddy D. Wheat

35. Vernal Equinox falls on
A. 21st March B. 21st June C. 23rd September D. 22nd December

36. Coal is an example of
A. Igneous rocks B. Metamorphic rocks C. Sedimentary rocks D. None of the above

37. Black cotton soils (or Regur soils) are formed due to the disintegration of
A. Granite B. Basalt C. Charcoal D. Rhyolite

38. When rain falls through a cold layer of air near the earth’s surface, rain drops get frozen
into ice. This type of precipitation is called
A. Ice crystals B. Hail C. Sleet D. Snowfall

39. Which of the following major seaports handles the largest volume of our foreign trade?
A. Mumbai B. Calcutta C. Kochi D. Mormugao

40. The river Sutlej, on which the Bhakra Dam has been build originates from
A. A spring in Verinag B. Near Bara Lacha Pass in Lahul
C. Rakas Lake in Tiber D. Manasarovar Lake

41. India’s total coastline, in length (including the coastline of the Indian islands), is nearly
A. 4500 km B. 5500 km C. 6500 km D. 7500 km

42. In which of the following units is atmospheric pressure measured?
A. Grams per cubic metre B. Kilometres per hour
C. Kilograms per square metre D. Millimetres

43. The area of the Union of India is nearest to
A. 30 lakh sq.km B. 33 lakh sq km C. 36 lakh sq km D. 39 lakh sq km

44. Western Rajasthan receives scant rainfall because
A. The Aravallis obstruct the rain - bearing winds
B. It lies in the rain shadow region
C. It lies in a region too hot to permit precipitation
D. It lies in the region of rain-bearing winds

45. Which of the following important rivers does not pour its waters into the Bay of Bengali?
A. Brahmaputra B. Ganges C. Godavari D. Narmada

46. The Salal Project is on the river
A. Chenab B. Jhelum C. Ravi D. Sutlej

47. Which is the greatest archipelago on the globe?
A. Japan B. Indonesia C. West Indies D. Philippines

48. The maximum density of canals is in which of the following States?
A. Tamil Nadu B. Uttar Pradesh C. Punjab D. Andhra Pradesh

49. Which one of the following major sea ports in without a natural harbour?
A. Mumbai B. Paradeep C. Marmagao D. Visakhapatnam

50. Which of the following important centres of pilgrimage is not situated on the banks of the
Ganges?
A. Allahabad B. Hardwar C. Mathura D. Varanasi

51. Africa is rich in hydro-electric potentialities but lagging in the production of hydroelectricity.
This is due to the lack of
A. good sites for power plants B. healthy climate for work
C. human efforts for development D. raw materials for industry

52. Which of the following island is not a coral island:
A. Katchall B. Chetlat C. Kiltan D. Kalpeni

53. The percentage of our total population employed in agriculture is nearly
A. 40 per cent B. 52 per cent C. 60 per cent D. 70 per cent
54. At the core of the earth, the temperature is estimated to be around
A. 1,000°C B. 1,200°C C. 2,000°C D. 2,600°C

55. Africa, rich in resources, is a continent consisting of poor countries. This is because?
A. It is impossible to develop its resources
B. The countries located in it are inhabited by poor people
C. The countries located in it are less developed in science and technology
D. People are habituated to live in poverty

56. The natural region which holds the Indian subcontinent is
A. Hot, desert B. Equatorial climatic region
C. Monsoon D. Mediterranean

57. On 21st June, the duration of daylight at a place on earth, with latitude 66°30’S and angle of
incidence 0° of the Sun’s rays, is
A. zero hours B. 7 hours and 42 minutes
C. 13 hours and 27 minutes D. 16 hours and 18 minutes

58. Which of the following gases is 0.3% as a constituent of pure dry air in the earth’s atmosphere?
A. Carbon dioxide B. Hydrogen C. Oxygen D. Ozone

59. Which of the following is most useful for measuring the shortest distance between two
places on the earth and the path between them?
A. Atlas maps B. Thematic maps C. Wall maps D. Globe

60. Which of the following is the most important raw material for generation of power in India?
A. Coal B. Mineral Oil C. Natural Gas D. Uranium

61. In which course of a river are distributaries formed?
A. Lower course B. Meandering course C. Middle course D. Upper course

62. Which of the following statements best defines the ecosystem?
A. A system that classifies organisms
B. A system which comprises the physical environment and the organisms that live therein
C. A system that studies the volume, intensity and velocity of sound
D. A system that governs the radiation of energy from the Sun

63. Name the method in which different colours are used to represent various features of
elevation of the ground.
a. Contours B. Hachures C. Layer Shading D. Millibars

64. In which of the following types of climate does the temperature never rise above 10°C
throughout the year?
A. Continental climate B. Mediterranean climate
C. Tundra climate D. Taiga climate

65. Which of the following is an example of young folded mountains?
A. Aravallis B. Himalayas C. Nilgiris D. Satpuras

66. Name the shipyard situated on the Konkan coast?
A. Cochin B. Kandla C. Mazagon D. Visakhapatnam

67. Which of the following regions of the world is most thickly populated?
A. East Asia B. South Asia
C. North-West Europe D. North and South America

68. Insolation heats up land masses more quickly than the water bodies because
A. Water is liquid B. Landmasses are solid
C. Water needs more energy to warm D. Rocks are bad conductors of heat

69. Which one of the following is the highest gravity dam in the world?
A. Beas Dam B. Bhakra Dam
C. Hirakud D. Nagarjuna Sagar Dam

70. Which atomic power station in India is built completely indigenously?
A. Kalpakkam B. Narora C. Rawat Bhata D. Tarapore

71. The mapping of which of the following is most difficult?
A. Mountains B. Plateaus and Plains
C. Interior of the Earth D. Oceans and their depth

72. Which of the following is a primary occupation?
A. Communication B. Diamond cutting C. Lumbering D. None of these

73. Which of the following processes brings the land surface to a common level?
A. Aggradation B. Erosion C. Gradation D. Weathering

74. Which part of the equatorial region has well-developed rubber plantations?
A. Amazon basin B. Indonesian islands C. Malaysia D. Zaire basin

75. What approximately is the percentage of the world population conentrated in Asia?
A. 17% B. 62% C. 58% D. 73%

76. Which of the following is regarded as a perennial crop?
A. Maize B. Rice C. Wheat D. Sugarcane

77. The land use in an area changes with the time because of change in the
A. Fertility of land B. Quality of land C. Utility of land D. Price of land

78. Between which of the following longitudes is India located?
A. 68°25’E to 97°6’E B. 67°30’E to 97°30’E
C. 66°15’E to 97°25’E D. 68°7’E to 97°25’E

79. A system of farming in which the cultivators constantly move to new fields as old ones
wear out is called
A. Commercial agriculture B. Plantation agriculture
C. Subsistence agriculture D. Shifting agriculture

80. Between which of the following latitudes is the mainland of India located?
A. 8°4’ North and 38°6 North B. 8°4’ North and 37°6’ North
C. 7°4’ North and 37°6’ North D. 7°4’ North and 38°7’ North

81. Which climatic region has the least temperature range?
A. Equatorial region B. Monsoon region
C. Tropical region D. Mediterranean region

82. Deforestation results in which of the following?
A. Drought B. Floods C. Soil erosion D. All of these

83. The principal reason for the formation of metamorphic rocks is
A. Deposition of sediments B. Deposition of remains of plants and animals
C. Extreme heat and pressure D. Solidification of magma

84. The main producers of coffee in Africa include
A. Algeria, Libya and Egypt B. Somalia and Mozambique
C. Angola, Ivory Coast and Uganda D. French West Africa, Botswana and Libya

85. Which of the following factors is responsible for variation in the flora and fauna in different
parts of the earth?
A. Change in the physical environment B. Change in atmosphere
C. Change in biosphere D. Change in hydrosphere

86. Which of the following layers of the earth is believed to have the heaviest mineral materials
of highest density?
A. Central core B. Crust C. Mantle D. Both B and C

87. Which of the following is the world famous mineral region of India?
A. Shillong Plateau B.Malwa Plateau
C. Chotanagpur Plateau D. Decean Plateau

88. Which of the following agents of gradation is responsible for the formation of ‘Barkhans’?
A. Glaciers B. Running water C. Waves D. Wind

89. Which of the following climatic characteristics is related tropical deserts?
A. Low pressure throughout the year B. Most of the rain comes in winter
C. Very high daily range of temperature D. Very low daily range of temperature

90. What type of farming is practised in the densely populated regions of the world?
A. Commercial farming B. Extensive farming
C. Intensive farming D. Plantation farming

91. The heavier silicates named as ‘Sima’ (Silica + Magnesium) are most abundant in the
A. Crust B. Core C. Mantle D. Ocean floors

92. How can the limited agricultural land in India be compensated?
A. By improving wasteland B. By bringing more land irrigation
C. By deforestation D. None of these

93. Which is the main activity of the Eskimos during the short period of summer season?
A. Hunting B. Fishing C. Lumbering D. Animal grazing

94. What type of volcano is Vesuvius?
A. Extinct B. Dead C. Dormant D. Active

95. The Horse latitudes lie within:
A. Equatorial low B. Sub tropical high C. Polar high D. Subpolar low

96. Most of the rivers flowing west from the Western Ghats do not form deltas because of
A. the high gradient B. lack of vegetation-freearea
C. low velocity D. lack of eroded material

97. Although only the southern part of India lies in the tropical region, but the whole of India has
tropical climate. This is because
A. India comes under the influence of monsoons
B. Northern part of India has large tracts of plain region
C. Tropic of Cancer passes through the middle of the country
D. High Himalayan mountain ranges separate it from the rest of Asia.

98. Seasonal contrasts are maximum in
A. Mid latitudes B. Low latitudes C. High latitudes D. Subtropics

99. Which one of the following is a type of planetary wind?
A. Sea breeze B. Tornadoes C. Monsoons D. Westerlies

100. ‘Moorlands’ are
A. Marine vegetation near Sunderbans
B. the areas of marshy lands
C. the regions where evergreen trees flourish
D. areas which twisted shrubs and grasses grow

Answers
1. B 2. C 3. C 4. A 5. C 6. B 7. A 8. C 9. B 10. C 11. B 12. D 13. A 14. C 15. A 16. C 17. D 18. A 19. B 20. A 21. A 22. D 23. C 24. A 25. A 26. B 27. C 28. A 29. C 30. C 31. D 32. C 33. B 34. A 35. A 36. C 37. B 38. C 39. A 40. C 41. D 42. C 43. B 44. C 45. D 46. A 47. B 48. B 49. B 50. C 51. C 52. A 53. B 54. C 55. C 56. C 57. A 58. A 59. D 60. A 61. A 62. B 63. C 64. C 65. B 66. C 67. D 68. C 69. B 70. A 71. C 72. C 73. C 74. C 75. B 76. D 77. A 78. D 79. D 80. B 81. A 82. D 83. C 84. C 85. A 86. A 87. C 88. D 89. C 90. C 91. D 92. B 93. A 94. A 95. B 96. A 97. D 98. A 99. D 100. D

Model Question Papers : Deputy Collector Examination| General English -1410

 PRACTICE TEST :20

Provide prepositions:
1. I don’t interfere ——— my students in such matters .
(A) with (B) for (C) at (D) of

2. The ship is heavily laden ——— cargo .
(A) in (B) with (C) on (D) of

3. The king loaded the soldier ——— honours .
(A) of (B) for (C) with (D) of

4. He made ——— the door .
(A) for (B) of (C) at (D) beside

5. The street is paved ——— stones .
(A) with (B) in (C) on (D) of

6. It is a matter pertaining ——— philosophy .
(A) to (B) in (C) for (D) on

7. Don’t resort ———— foul means to make money .
(A) off (B) in (C) with (D) to

8. The court set ———— his claims .
(A) in (B) aside (C) of (D) for

9. The essay sets ——— the author’s views .
(A) forth (B) in (C) for (D) at

10. He set ———— on a pilgrimage .
(A) out (B) for (C) at (D) on


Spot the error:
11. (A) My shoes are / (B) worse / (C) to wear . / (D) no error

12. (A) My elder brother / (B) and my sister / (C) helps me in doing my home work . / (D) no error

13. (A) He immediately / (B) returned / (C) the book. / (D) no error


14. (A) I / (B) am / (C) honest always / (D) no error

15. (A) He / (B) rises / (C) seldom early / (D) no error

16. (A) You should have /(B) always been /(C) behaving well./(D) no error

17. (A) I think /(B)you are enough strong / (C) to lift the trunk /(D) no error

Fill up the blanks:
18. In spite of very tight security , the prisoner —— from the jail .
(A) jumped (B) escaped (C) went (D) ran

19. Two of the prisoners ———— from the jail.
(A) got on (B) got up (C) got across (D) got away

20. Don’t ————.
(A) fear (B) be afraid (C) be fear (D) none of these

21. After ———— this form, give it to the secretary.
(A) complete (B) have completed (C) completed (D) completing

22. You can’t have an apple, and you can’t have an orange ————.
(A) also (B) either (C) neither (D) none of these

23. You can have an apple, but you can’t have an orange———.
(A) too (B) either (C) neither (D) none of these

24. She is unhappy because he———any friends.
(A) has (B)hasn’t (C) have (D) haven’t

25. They ———— that house when I was here last year.
(A) have been building (B) have built (C) were building (D) had been building

26. The students in the last benches complained that they could not ——— what the teacher was saying.
(A) make out (B) make up (C) make up for (D) make after

27. ——— I get some tea for you.?
(A) should (B) would (C) will (D) shall

28. The meaning of the phrase “Alma Mater.”
(A) matter of fact (B) material benefit (C) mother institution (D) important position

29. When I first met him, he ————— in a hotel.
(A) had been working (B) has been working (C) was working (D) worked

30. He hardly ever lives in the village,——————?
(A) does he (B) doesn’t he (C) isn’t he (D) will he

31. Nehru was not only a politician,———— a great writer.
(A) but (B) but also (C) and (D) also

Rewrite as directed
32. Find out the correct sentence.
(A)Four weeks are a good holiday. (B) Four weeks is a good holiday.
(C)Four week are good holidays. (D)Four weeks is a good holidays.

33. Vinod will get a first class. He is hard working. (Combine using ‘so —— that’)
(A) Vinod is hard working so that he will get a first class.
(B) Vinod is so hard working that he will get a first class.
(C) Vinod will get a first class so that he is hard working.
(D) So that Vinod is hard working he will get a first class.

34. The meeting was held in camera. (Meaning of the phrase underlined)
(A) was photographed (B) in private (C) openly (D) in a public place

35. The management has decided to suspend the striking employees. (Begin with ‘it’)
(A) It was decided to suspend the striking employees.
(B) It is decided to suspend the striking employees.
(C) It has been decided to suspend the striking employees.
(D) It had been decided to suspend the striking employees.

36. His explanations cut no ice with the police. (Approximate meaning of the idiom underlined)
(A) to have little effect (B) to make angry (C) satisfy (D) deceive

37. The appropriate meaning of ‘spill the beans’ is.
(A) scatter on the floor (B) fill the place (C) to suffer a fall (D) to reveal secret information

38. “I bought a book.” is the active form of:
(A) A book has bought by me. (B) I was bought by a book.
(C) A book has been bought. (D) A book was bought by me.

39. The synonym of ‘plain’ is:
(A) smooth (B) simple (C) soft (D) shining

40. The antonym of ‘fact’ is:
(A) fixation (B) figure (C) fiction (D) fitness

ANSWERS
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. A 6. A 7. D 8. B 9. A 10. A 11. B 12. C 13. A 14. C 15. C 16. B 17. B 18. B 19. D 20. B 21. D 22. B 23. A 24. B 25. C 26. A 27. D 28. C 29. C 30. A 31. B 32. B 33. B 34. B 35. C
36. B 37. D 38. D 39. B 40. C

Brilliance College Model Question Papers of Deputy Collector Examination

Every Day Science : Physics Paper 2


1. Which of the following is a derived unit ?
A. Mass B. Length C. Time D. Velocity

2. Which part of the sun is visible during total solar eclipse
A. corona B. chromosphere C. photosphere D. No part

3. The Father of electricity is :
A. Kamerlingh Onnes B. Issac Newton C. Albert Einstein D. Michael Faraday

4. One horse power is equal to –––– watts.
A. 764 B. 754 C. 745 D. 746

5. A man sitting in a train in motion is facing the engine. He tosses a coin up, the coin falls
behind him. The train is
A. moving forward with uniform speed B. moving backward with uniform speed
C. moving forward with acceleration D. moving forward with deceleration

6. Speedometer of an automobile measures
A. average velocityB. acceleration C. instantaneous speed
D. instantaneous velocity

7. The SI unit of work is
A. Joule B. Watt C. Calorie D. Ampere

8. The study of friction and lubricants is
A. Astrophysics B. Dynamics C. Optics D. Tribology

9. In long jump (distance is measured only horizontally) a person who jumps at an angle ——
—— to ground has greater probability of winning.
A. 450 B. 900 C. 300 D. 600

10. Who proposed atomic theory ?
A. John Dalton B. Neils Bohr C. Chadwick D. Rutherford

11. When ice melts, its volume
A. increases B. decreases C. remains the same
D. first decreases then increases

12. Three primary colours of light are
A. Red, green, blue B. Red, yellow, green C. Red, yellow, blue D. Green, blue, yellow

13. The gravitational pull exerted by the earth is maximum at the
A. South pole B. North pole C. Antartic circle D. Equator

14. Solar eclipse occurs on
A. full moon day B. new moon day C. half moon day D. none of these

15. The foul air we exhale in a room is
A. cooler and hence lighter B. warmer and hence heavier
C. warmer and hence lighter D. cooler and hence heavier

16. Factor which decides the climate of a place
A. Latitudes B. Distance from the sea C. Rotation of the earth
D. Longitude

17. Ozone layer above the earth is between
A. 20 and 35 km B. 60 and 80 km C. 80 and 110 km D. 75 and 100 km

18. The highest science award in India
A. Bhabha award B. C.V. Raman award C. S.S. Bhatnagar award
D. Chanakya award

19. Who invented MASER
A. Charles H. Townes B. Theodore Maiman C. James Harrison
D. Alexander Catlin

20. INSAT – 2C was launched from ——
A. Thumba B. Hanoi C. Kourou Island D. Ottawa

21. The power of an ordinary torch cell is
A. 0.5 V B. 2.5 V C. 1.5 V D. 1.1 V

22. Light year is the unit of
A. time B. speed C. distance D. year

23. The first known source of a magnet was discovered in
A. Asia Minor (Turkey) B. Iran C. Gold Coast D. Bombay high

24. In a Doctor’s stethescope, the sound is intensified because of
A. Resonance of sound B.Constructive interference
C. Principle of super position of waves D. Reflection of sound

25. In colder regions, the thermometer used to measure temperature is
A. wet and dry bulb hygrometer B. Mercury thermometer C. Gas thermometer
D. Alcohol thermometer

26. What type of energy does a compressed spring possess ?
A. Kinetic B. potential C. thermal D. magnetic

27. If the temperature of a patient is 400C, his temperature on the Fahrenheit scale will be
A. 1040F B. 720F C. 960F D. 1000F

28. A simple microscope consists of ———
A. concave lens B. plano concave lens C. convex lens D. cylindrical lens

29. Short sightedness can be corrected by ——
A. convex mirror B. concave lens C. plane mirror D. concave lens

30. When temperature increases, the velocity of sound—
A. increases B. decreases C. will not change
D. increases and then decreases

31. Intensity of a sound is measured in ———
A. Hertz B. Decibel C. miles/second
D. periodicity and regularity

32. Loudness of sound depends upon its ——
A. wave length B. frequency C. amplitude D. overtones

33. Which of the following is most elastic ?
A. Steel B. Glass C. Aluminium D. Rubber

34. In a periodic table, the horizontal rows are called——
A. periods B. groups C. series D. none of the above

35. Photo electric effect was first explained by —
A. Rutherford B. J.J. Thomson C. Bohr D. Einstein

36. Henry Bequeral discovered ––––––
A. field emission B. natural radioactivity
C. Artifical radioactivity D. a, b, and g - rays

37. Control rods used in nuclear reactors are made of ——
A. stainless steel B. graphite C. cadmium D. plutonium

38. 1 Quintal = ———— kilograms
A. 100 B. 1000 C. 10000 D. 10

39. The weight of diamond is determined by an unit called –––––
A. Carat B. Gram C. Litre D. Mohs

40. Under what condition does a lunar eclipse takes place?
A. The earth comes between the sun and the moon
B. The moon comes between the sun and the earth
C. The sun comes between the earth and the moon
D. The sun, moon and earth are in straight line in any order

41. ———— is called the twin planet earth
A. Mars B. Uranus C. Mercury D. Venus

42. Which of the following is uses as a heating element
A. Silver B. Copper C. Nichrome D. Tin

43. Dr. Abdul Kalam was awarded the ‘Bharat Ratna’ in 1997 for
A. Missile Technology B. Nuclear Research C. War gallantry
D. Food Technology

44. The technique used to transmit audio signals in television broadcast is
A. Amplitude modulation B. Frequency modulation
C. Pulse code modulation D.Time division multiplexing

45. Sunlight filtering through a tree often makes circular patches on the ground because
A. the space through which light penitrates B. due to polarization of light
C. due to interference of light D. due to diffraction phenomenon

46. Reflectors used in solar cookers are
A. convex B. concave C. plane D. cylindrical

47. Which one of the following element is seen abundantly in solar system ?
A. Helium B. Hydrogen C. Oxygen D. Nitrogen

48. The working principle of the ink filler is
A. The pressure outside the bottle acts on the filler
B. The expansion of the filler
C. The cylindrical structure of the filler
D. The atmospheric pressure acts on the surface on the ink

49. Dentist’s mirror is a
A. Cylindrical mirror B. Plane mirror C. Convex mirror D. Concave mirror

50. A rainbow is formed by the ——— of light by water droplets
A. disperson B. scattering C. total internal reflection
D. disperson and total internal reflection.

51. National Science Day is observed on 28th February to commemorate
A. Bhabha’s birthday B. The day of declaration of Raman Effect
C. Launching of the first Indian Satellite Aryabhatta
D. Successful launching of PSLV

52. Hypermetropia can be corrected by using ——
A. concave lens B. convex lens C. plano concave lens D. plano convex lens

53. When was the first Atomic Energy Commission set up in India ?
A. August 10, 1948 B. August 12, 1950 C. August 1, 1949 D. August 20, 1951

54. India conducted the first nuclear explosion in the year
A. May 18, 1974 B. May 11, 1998 C. May 13, 1998 D. May 12, 1988

55. Which of the following is the best conductor of electricity?
A. Cold water B. Warm water C. Saline water D. Distilled water

56. Which sector in India uses coal in maximum quantity?
A. Railway B. Thermal plants C. Refineries D. Transport

57. The density of water is maximum in
A. 00C B. 40C C. 250C D. 1000C

58. The farthest object in solar system is
A. Neptune B. Pluto C. Eris D. Ceres

59. Liquified gas under a pressure of 58 atmospheres is
A. Water gas B. Hard water C. Dry ice D. Soft water

60. The sun’s heat and light energy reaches the earth by
A. conduction B. Convection C. reflection D. radiation

61. Where is the National Physical Laboratory situated
A. Puna B. NewDelhi C. Culcutta D. Bangalore

62. Which of the following is a common constituent of transistor ?
A. Silicon B. Copper C. Beryllium C. Iron

63. When common salt is mixed with ice, the freezing point
A. is lowered B. is raised C. remains unaffected
D. is first lowered and then raised

64. As the train starts moving, a man sitting inside leans backwards because of
A. inertia of rest B. inertia of motion C. moment of inertia
D. conservation of mass

65. Water pipes burst in severe winter at hill stations because
A. they contract on cooling B. water in the pipe contracts on freezing
C. water in the pipe expands on freezing D. pipes expand on cooling

66. An aneroid barometer uses
A. mercury B. alcohol C. distilled water
D. doesn’t use any liquid

67. The ink of the pen leaks out in an aeroplane because
A. atmospheric pressure increases
B. pressure of ink inside is more than the ambient pressure
C. high speed of aeroplane D. temperature difference

68. Perspiration is maximum when temperature is
A. high and air is humid B. high and air is dry
C. low and air is humid D. low and air is dry

69. Sound travels fastest in
A. air B. water C. vacuum D. steel

70. A periscope works by the principle of
A. diffraction B. reflection and interference
C. reflection and refraction D. refraction only

71. An air bubble in water shines because of the phenomenon of
A. reflection B. refraction C. diffraction
D. total internal reflection

72. The pitch of the voice of women is in general
A. higher than that of men B. marginally lower than that of men
C. the same as that of men
D. Some times higher and sometimes lower than that of men

73. A noise level of 20 decibels would correspond to
A. ordinary conversation B. whispering C. Machine sound
D. Supersonic plane’s sound

74. To detect the over speeding vehicles, police use
A. Diffraction of short radio waves B. Refraction of short radio waves
C. Doppler effect of reflected short radio waves
D. Reflection and refraction of short radio waves

75. A choke is fitted along with fluorescent tubes. The choke coil,
A. steps up the line voltage B. steps down the line voltage
C. reduces current in the circuit D. vanishes the low frequency currents

76. The transmission of heat without any carrier in between is
A. conduction B. convection C. refraction D. radiation

77. Atom bomb was discovered by
A. Edward Teller B. Madam Curie C. Baird D. Otto Hahn

78. Which law of Newton defines inertial frames ?
A. First law B. Second law C. Third law D. Both (A), (B) and (C)

79. From the point of view of wave motion, a ray can be defined as an imaginary line draw in
the direction in which
A. the wave is travelling B. the wave is reflected
C. the ray is refracted D. Name of the above

80. A person can view his full-length image in a mirror that is at least ——— his height
A. one-fifth B. one-fourth C. one-third D. half

81. The vacuum in a thermos bottle minimizes heat transfer by
A. Conduction B. Convection C. Radiation D. Absorption

82. What is the colour of the black box kept in the cockpit of an aeroplane ?
A. Orange B. Black C. White D. Red

83. With increase of humidity, the velocity of sound in air
A. decreases B. increases C. fluctuates irregularly D.remains unaffected

84. With increase of height from the surface of the earth the value of ‘g’
A. increases B. decreases C. remains constant D. fluctuates

85. A gyrostatic compass is used in
A. aeroplanes B. ships C. submarines D. All of the above

86. What is the unit of current ?
A. watt B. volt C. Ampere D. Coulomb

87. The net weight of LPG in a domestic gas cylinder supplied is
A. 14.2 kg B. 14 kg C. 15.2 kg D. 15 kg

88. The phenomenon of ———— has been used to test the planeness of surfaces and also to
reduce reflecting power of the lens and the prism surfaces
A. diffraction B. interference C. polarization D. none of the above

89. A thermodynamic system is one which can be described in terms of
A. temperature B. volume C. introphy
D. thermodynamic co-ordinate

90. The process by which solids directly change to gaseous state is
A. Diffusion B. condensation C. Sublimation D. Vapourisation

91. The technique in which 3-dimentional picture of an object can be obtained is
A. LASER B. Holography C. Photography
D. Optical interferrometry

92. Which one of the following is used by the motorist to see the road behind him
A. concave mirror B. convex mirror C. concave lens D. convex lens

93. An astronaut on an earth satellite will observe the sky as
A. deep red B. sky blue C. black D. deep blue

94. The image formed on the retina of the human eye is
A. imaginary and upright B. imaginary and inverted
C. real and upright D. real and inverted

95. The lowest temperature is recorded
A. at midnight B. just after sun rise C. just before sun rise
D. between 4 pm and 5 pm

96. The energy possessed by the water collected in the reservoir of a dam
A. Kinetic energy B. Mechanical energy C. Electric energy D. Potential energy

97. The most important raw material for generation of power in India
A. Uranium B. Thorium C. Radium D. Coal

98. India’s first tactical surface-to surface missle was —
A. Agni B. Trishul C. Prithvi D. Insat – IB

99. ISRO Satellite Centre is at
A. Thiruvananthapuram B. Bangalore C. Sriharikota
D. Trombay

100.An instrument which indicates altitude of a place along with corresponding pressure
A. Anemometer B. Barometer C. Hygrometer D. Altimeter

Answers

1 D; 2 A;  3 D;  4 D;  5 C;  6 C;  7 A;  8 D; 9 A; 10 A; 11 B; 12 A; 13 D; 14 B; 15 C; 16 A; 17 A; 18 C; 19 A; 20 C; 21 C; 22 C; 23 A; 24 D; 25 D; 26 B; 27 A; 28 C; 29 B; 30 A; 31 B; 32 C; 33 B; 34 A; 35 D; 36 B; 37 C; 38 A; 39 A; 40 A; 41 D; 42 C; 43 A; 44 B; 45 D; 46 B; 47 B; 48 D; 49 D; 50 D; 51 B; 52 B; 53 A ;54 A; 55 C; 56 B; 57 B; 58 C; 59 C; 60 D; 61 B; 62 A; 63 A; 64 A; 65 C; 66 D; 67 B; 68 A; 69 D; 70 C; 71 D; 72 A; 73 B; 74 C; 75 A; 76 D; 77 D; 78 A; 79 A; 80 D; 81 B; 82 B; 83 B; 84 B; 85 D; 86 C; 87 A; 88 B; 89 D; 90 C; 91 B; 92 B; 93 C; 94 D; 95 C; 96 D; 97 D; 98 C; 99 B; 100D

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Deputy Collector Examination - Model Question Papers 01

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Every Day Science : Physics  Paper 1

1. Who had invented wireless telegraph?
A. J.L.Baird B. Alfred Nobel C. Marconi D. Waterman

2. Who discovered X-Rays?
A. Brequet B. James Watt C. Cavendish D. Roentgen

3. A Photometer is used for the determination of :
A. Altitudes B. Electric Potential
C. Specific gravity D. Intensity of illumination

4. Quantum Theory was discovered by:
A. J. Priestly B. Marconi C. Max Plank D. W.K.Roentgen

5. Which was associated with Fermi?
A. South Pole B. Atomic Bomb C. Wireless Telegraph D. Raman Effect

6. The element of an electric heater is made of :
A. Brass B. Copper C. Iron D. Nichrome

7. The audiable frequency of human ear is between 20 hertz and –––––hertz
A. 20000 B. 15000 C. 2000 D. 200

8. What does a voltmeter measure?
A. Current B. Potential difference C. Resistance D. None of these

9. How does a yellow flower look in red light?
A. Black B. Red C. Orange D. White

10. Two solid bodies A and B float in water. It is observed that A floats with 2/3 of its volume
immersed while B floats with 3/4 of its volume immersed. The densities of A and B are in
the ratio:
A. 9:8 B. 8:9 C. 2:3 D. None of these



11. If the distance between two bodies is halved, the force of gravitation:
A. Decreases slightly B. Remains unchanged
C. Becomes double the previous value D. Becomes four times the previous value

12. The Moon is kept in orbit due to a balance between:
A. Centripetal force and gravitational force
B. Earth’s attraction and Sun’s attraction
C. Centrifugal force and gravitational force
D. None of these

13. The kind of energy stored in a dam is:
A. Heat energy B. Kinetic energy C. Potential energy D. None of these

14. Which is most elastic?
A. Copper B. Steel C. Glass D. None of these

15. Law of Electrolysis was discovered by:
A. Snell B. Faraday C. Dalton D. Kepler

16. Alcohol is used as a thermometric liquid when it is desired to measure:
A. Low temperatures B. High temperatures
C. Very high temperatures D. None of these

17. Water pipes are apt to burst in cold weather because:
A. They contract due to cold weather
B. They expand due to cold weather
C. The water in the pipe cannot evaporate
D. The water in the pipe turns into ice and expands

18. Humidity in air is measured by:
A. Hygrometer B. Hydrometer C. Manometer D. Anemometer

19. Why does ice in sawdust not melt quickly?
A. Sawdust does allow the air to touch the ice
B. The water is absorbed by sawdust
C. Sawdust is a Bad Conductor of heat
D. None of these

20. Why is the rainbow seen after rainfall?
A. There are certain gases after rain
B. As the light passes through rain drops it under goes disperion
C. The atmosphere is clear by rain
D. As the atmosphere is clear light undergoes reflection

21. Grass look green because:
A. It is by nature
B. It reflects green colour
C. It absorbs all the colours of white light except green
D. None of these

22. The weight of a man at the surface of the moon will be only about one-sixth of his weight
on the earth because:
A. Moon has no atmosphere
B. The gravity of moon is about that much less (one-sixth as compared to that of the earth)
C. Moon is very far off from the earth
D. The moon is six times smaller than earth

23. Which one, out of cold, boiling or warm water is a better fire extinguisher?
A. Warm water B. Cold water C. Boiling water D. None of these

24. We can see things more clearly at night when we:
A. Look slightly, below the thing B. Look directly the thing
C. Look out of the side of the eye D. None of these

25. Balloons are filled with hydrogen on account of:
A. Its being colourless B. Its being odourless
C. Its extreme lightness D. None of these

26. Acoustic is the science dealing with the study of:
A. Light B. Space C. Sound D. None of these

27. At which location on the earth will the same object weigh the least?
A. South Pole B. North Pole C. Equator D. None of these

28. Safety match was invented by:
A. Landstrom B. Wilson C. Perkin D. None of these

29. The instrument which measures depth of the ocean is called:
A. Fathometer B. Gravimeter C. Galvanometer D. Altimeter

30. The name of the instrument used for recording sound under water is:
A. Gravimeter B. Hydrometer C. Hydrophone D. Hygrometer

31. Radio Activity was discovered by:
A. Henry Becquerel B. Rutherford
C. Edward Jenner D. Madam Curie

32. The SI unit of temperature is:
A. Kelvin B. Celsius C. Centigrade D. Fahrenheit

33. .......is not used for the production of atomic energy:
A. Radium B. Uranium C. Thorium D. Barium

34. Black Holes are celestrial bodies which have a strong force:
A. Electric B. Magnetic C. Gravitational D. Cosmic

35. X-rays cannot penetrate through
A. Wood B. Aluminium C. Lead D. Iron

36. Light year is the unit of:
A. Velocity B. Distance C. Light D. Time

37. When ion rusts, its weight:
A. Increases B. Decreases
C. Remains the same D. First increases and then decreases

38. ......energy causes least pollution.
A. Solar B. Thermal C. Nuclear D. Chemical

39. Cosmology deals with:
A. Cosmetics B. Medicine C. Universe D. Satellites

40. ........ is not a primary colour.
A. Red B. Blue C. Green D. Yellow

41. The instrument used for detection and measurement of electric current is:
A. Voltmeter B. Galvanometer C. Wattmeter D. Anemometer

42. The lowest temperature theoretically possible is:
A. -278°C B. -273°C C. -270°C D. -237°C

43. Alfred Nobel invented the:
A. Atom bomb B. Machine gun C. Dynamite D. Dynamo

44. The equatorial radius is ....... miles.
A. 3,963 B. 3,693 C. 3,669 D. 3,369

45. If a red object is seen in blue light, it will:
A. Violet B. Red C. Green D. Black

46. Time taken by sunlight to reach the earth is:
A. 15 sec B. 8 sec C. 15 min D. 8 min

47. EEG is related to the:
A. Brain B. Heart C. Eyes D. Kidneys

48. In normal condition, the pace maker of heart is in the :
A. Lymph node B. AV node C. Sinoatrial node D. Sinus Venosus

49. Selenology is the study of:
A. Selenium B. Moon C. Venus D. Mars

50. .........records the intensity of earthquake.
A. Electrograph B. Oscilloscope C. Seismograph D. Spectrograph

51. The minimum velocity required to escape from the earth’s gravitational field is ......km/sec.
A. 11.9 B. 11.2 C. 11.6 D. 11.4

52. What’s the Avagadro’s number?
A. 6.023×1021 B. 6.023×1023 C. 6.023×10° D. 6.023×1025

53. Einstein was awarded the Nobel Prize for (the):
A. Theory of Relativity B. Einstein shift
C. Photoelectric effect D. E = MC2

54. A sudden fall in barometeric pressure indicates:
A. Rain B. Storm C. Hot weather D. Clear sky

55. Unit of work is:
A. Joule B. Dyne C. Pound D. Newton

56. Which day is celebrated as Science Day?
A. September 5th B. November 14th C. February 28th D. None of these

57. Cylindrical lens is used to correct:
A. Myopia B. Astigmatism C. Hypermetropia D. Colour blindness

58. Isotopes of an element have the same:
A. Atomic mass B. Atomic number C. Density D. Atomic weight

59. Who discovered the elivator?
A. Madam Curie B. Einstein C. Elisa Ottis D. Roentgen

60. Which statement is wrong?
A. Iron sinks in water B. Wood floats in water
C. Mercury floats in water D. Iron floats in mercury

61. The instrument for measuring curvature of surface is:
A. Spherometer B. Sphygmo manometer
C. Sphygmoscope D. Spectrometer

62. The instrument for measuring the altitude of the sun is called:
A. Spectrometer B. Sextant C. Spherometer D. Altimeter

63. Which one of the following does a TV remote control unit use to operate a TV set?
A. Light waves B. Sound waves C. Radio waves D. Infrared waves

64. Persistence of vision is the principle behind
A. camera B. spectroscope C. cinema D. periscope

65. The weight of a body is
A. the same everywhere on the surface of the earth
B. maximum at the poles
C. maximum at the equator
D. more on the hills than in the plains

66. Ball pen works on the principle of
A. Viscosity B. Boyle’s law
C. Gravitational force D. Capillarity and surface tension

67. At what temperature a body will not radiate any heat energy?
A. 0°C B. 273°C C. -4°C D. -273°C

68. A telescope and a microscope differ in that
A. both are different instruments
B. telescope has eyepiece with larger focal lengths than the objective
C. telescope has objective of large local lengths and eyepiece of smaller focal lengths.
D. None of these

69. The apparatus used in submarines to give clear view of the objects on the surface of the
ocean or ground is known as
A. periscope B. sectant C. stereoscope D. telescope

70. Which metal is commonly used for making an electromagnet?
A. copper B. iron C. nickel D. cobalt

71. Choke is used to
A. reduce high frequency components of electric signal
B. reduce the low frequency components of electric signal
C. convert AC to DC
D. convert DC to AC

72. The ozone layer protects us from
A. ultra violet rays B. radiowaves C. visual radiation D. infrared radiation

73. An example for second order lever is –––––.
A. Lime Sequeser B. Nail puller C. Ballance D. lu tongs

74. Growth of the baby in the uterus is found using
A. X-rays B. Gamma rays C. Ultra sound D. Ultra violet rays

75. The weather map telecast in T.V.is photographed by the satellite orbitting a height of
A. 36,000 k.m. B. 3,600 k.m. C. 3,600 miles D. 360 k.m.

76. The unit of force is –––––.
A. newton B. joule C. coulomb D. dioptre

77. The shining particles seen in the path of beem from a projector in cinema hall is due to
A. shining particles emanating from projector
B. scattering of light by dust particles in the path of the light
C. brownian movement of the dust
D. electrical properties of dust particles

78. “Decibal” is a unit of
A. sound intensity B. light C. heat D. electricity

79. An example of semi-conductor is
A. German silver B. Germanium C. Phosphorus D. Arsenic

80. Unit of charge is
A. Coulumb B. Faraday C. Ampere D. Volt

81. Atom bomb work for the principle of
A. Nuclear fission B. Nuclear fusion C. Newton’s law D. Faraday’s law

82. Four electro magnetic waves of different wave lengths are given. X-rays, Microwaves,
Ultraviolet, Infrared. Their correct arrangement in the descending order of wave length is
A. X-rays, Ulttraviolet, Infrared and Microwaves
B. Microwaves, Infrared Ultraviolet and X-rays
C. Ultraviolet, Infrared, X-rays and Microwaves
D. Microwaves, X-rays, Infrared and Ultraviolet

83. When light enters a lens (glass) there is a change in
A. wave length B. frequency C. velocity D. both (A) and (C)

84. Hydrogen bomb is based on the principle of
A. Nuclear fusion B. Nuclear fission C. Chemical reaction D. Chain reaction

85. When a wave goes from one place to another it transports
A. matter B. energy C. mass D. nothing

86. A 100 watt bulb will consume one unit of electrical energy in
A. 1 hour B. 10 hours C. one day D. 60 hours

87. The solar system belongs the galaxy called
A. Andromeda nebula B. Milky way
C. Radio galaxy D. Magellanic cloud

88. Which one of the following layers of the atmosphere is responsible for the reflection of

radio waves?
A. troposphere B. stratosphere C. mesosphere D. ionosphere

89. Television was discovered by
A. Becquerrel B. H.J.Bhaba C. Bohr D. J.L. Baird

90. On adding a little antimony to germanium, we get
A. P-type semiconductor B. N-type semiconductor
C. metallic conductor D. intrinsic semiconductor

91. Consider the statements: X - rays
I. are not electromagnetic radiations II. are electromagnetic radiations
III. have longer wave lengths IV. have shorter wave lengths
Of these statements:
A. I and III are correct B. I and IV are correct
C. II and IV are correct D. II and III are correct

92. Which of the following waves / rays are produced by nuclear changes in the atom?
A. infrared rays B. lights waves C. x-rays D. g -rays

93. Aritifical satellites are used for
A. TV transmissionB. Detecting minerals C. Space research D. All the three

94. Sound travels at maximum speed in
A. vacuum B. air C. water D. steel

95. The minimum lengths of a plane mirror in which a person can see himself in full length
should be
A. equal to the person’s height B. Slightly more than his height
C. nearly half of his height D. nearly one fourth of his height

96. If you walk towards a plane mirror at a speed of 1m/s at how fast do you and your image
approach each other?
A. 5 m/s B. 2 cm/s C. 1 m/s D. 4 m/s

97. The normal temperature of human body on the kelvin scale is
A. 280 B. 290 C. 310 D. 340

98. Electron microscopy is advantageous because
A. much greater resolution is possible
B. electrons are used as a source of radiation
C. transmission and scanning types are available
D. all the above mentioned features are combined

99. The phenomenon which cannot be explained by wave theory is
A. reflection B. refraction
C. photo electric emission D. polarisation

100.The half life of a radioactive sample is 20 minutes. What fraction of the sample will remain
undecayed after 80 minutes?
A. 1/16 B. 1/12 C. 1/8 D. 1/4

Answers

1. C 2. D 3. D 4. C 5. B 6. D 7. A 8. B 9. C 10. B 11. D 12. A 13. C 14. C 15. B 16. A 17. D 18. A 19. C 20. B 21. C 22. B 23. C 24. C 25. C 26. C 27. C 28. A 29. A 30. C 31. A 32. A 33. D 34. C 35. C 36. B 37. A 38. A 39. C 40. D 41. B 42. B 43. C 44. A 45. D 46. D 47. A 48. C 49. B 50. C 51. B 52. B 53. C 54. B 55. A 56. C 57. B 58. B 59. C 60. C 61. A 62. B 63. D 64. C 65. B 66. D 67. D 68. C 69. A 70. B 71. A 72. A 73. A 74. C 75. A 76. A 77. B 78. A 79. B 80. A 81. A 82. B 83. D 84. A 85. B 86. B 87. B 88. D 89. D 90. B 91. C 92. D 93. D 94. D 95. C 96. B 97. C (370C, 98.60F) 98. A 99. C 100.A

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