Practice Test 02
1. Economic justice has been incorporated in the Constitution of India under
A. Fundamental Rights B. Residuary Powers
C. Fundamental Duties D. Directive Principles of State Policy
2. The Constitution of India does not mention the post of
A. The Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
B. They Deputy Speaker of the State Legislative Assemblies
C. The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha D. The Deputy Prime Minister
3. Which State in India has the largest membership in its Legislative Assembly?
A. Bihar B. Madhya Pradesh C. Uttar Pradesh D. West Bengal
4. A candidate seeking election to a State Legislative Assembly must have completed –––
A. 20 years B. 25 years C. 21 years D. 20 years
5. The procedure for the amendment of the constitution is contained in
A. Article 338 B. Article 368 C. Article 311 D. Article 362
6. In case of a vacancy arising by reason of any cause other than the expiry of the term of the
incumbent President in office, the election to fill the vacancy must be held as soon as
possible and in no case later than
A. 3 months from the date of the vacancy arose
B. 6 months from the date of the vacancy arose
C. 9 months from the date of the vacancy arose
D. One year from the date of the vacancy arose
7. When there is a vacancy in the office of the President and the Vice-President at the same
time, the office is held temporarily by
A. a person nominated by both, the Houses of Parliament
B. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
C. The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha D. The Chief Justice of India
8. Which of the following is not a language included in the 8th Schedule of the Constitution ?
A. English B. Kashmiri C. Sanskrit D. Sindhi
9. Consider the following statements: The Indian Parliament can invade the State List, if
1) a subject in the State List assumes national importance
2) a proclamation of emergency has been issued by the President of India
3) the Supreme Court of India authorises the Parliament to do so
A. 2 & 3 are correct B. 1 and 2 are correct
C. 2 alone is correct D. 3 alone is correct
10. Which of the following are true of the National Human Rights Commission of India?
1) It enjoys the powers of a Civil Court
2) It consists of eight members
3) It will have its own nucleus of investigating staff and can seek the assistance of Central
and State investigative agencies
4) It need not seek the permission of the Central Government to establish offices at other places.
11. Judicial Review implies
A. the power of the Supreme Court and the High Courts to review the constitutionality of
the laws made by Parliament and State Legislatures
B. the power of the Supreme Court to intervene in case the Fundamental Rights are violated
C. the power of the Supreme Court to intervene in disputes arising between the Centre and
a State
D. the power of the Supreme Court and the High Courts to decide on election disputes
12. Plebiscite is a device of democracy used for
A. enactment of laws B. ascertaining the views of people on a policy matter of public importance
C. appointment civil servants D. appointment of judges
13. The Constitution of India was enacted by a Constituent Assembly set up
A. under the Cabinet Misison Plan, 1946 B. under the Indian Independence Act, 1947
C. through a resolution of the provisional government D. by the Indian National Congress
14. The chief merit of proportional representation is that it provides for
A. equal opportunity for the poor and wealthy
B. equal opportunity for rural and urban people
C. proportional representation to all parties in the legislature
D. elimination of minor parties and factions.
15. Which one of the following Articles under the Indian Constitution empowers the President
to appoints commission to investigate the condition of backward classes in general and
suggest ameliorative measures?
A. Article 339 B. Article 340 C. Article 342 D. Article 344
16. Which of the following is not a writ issued by the Supreme Court?
A. Certiorari B. Quo Warranto C. Suo Motto D. Mandamus
17. India’s commitment to promote international peace and security is contained in
A. Fundamental Rights B. Directive Principles of State Policy
C. Fundamental Duties D. The Preamable to the Constitution
18. India is a Republic, because
A. It is a member of the Commonwealth B. It has an elected Parliament
C. It has a written Constitution D. The Head of State (the President) is elected
19. Who can initiate impeachment proceedings against the President of India?
A. Only Lok Sabha B. Rajya Sabha
C. Any of the Legislative Assemblies D. Either House of Parliament
20. Right to Property is a
A. Fundamental Right B. Directive Principle C. Legal Right D. Social Right
21. India is a secular state because –––––––
A. it is a socialist country B. it treats all religions alike
C. there is no religion of the people D. religious beliefs and practices are discouraged
22. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right?
A. Right against exploitation B. Equal pay for equal work
C. Equality before law D. Right to freedom of religion
23. Democratic socialism is in favour of
A. controlling and regulating private enterprise under State direction
B. helping sick industries run by private individuals
C. abolishing private enterprise completely
D. promoting the interests and welfare of the producers only
24. The Gandhian principles have been enumerated in the
A. Fundamental Rights B. Preamble
C. Directive Principles D. Fundamental Duties
25. The difference between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of state policy is
A. Fundamental Rights are guaranteed under the law, but Directive Principles are only
moral laws to be observed by the citizen
B. Directive Principles can be enforced in a court of law, whereas Fundamental Rights
cannot be enforced
C. Directive Principles are in the nature of direction to the Legislature and Executive and
assurance to the people what they can expect from the State, whereas Fundamental
Rights are basic rights of the citizens
D. none of these
26. An interpretation of the Indian Constitution is based on the spirit of the –––––––
A. Preamable B. Directive Principles
C. Fundamental Rights D. Fundamental Duties
27. The Indian Constitution is regarded as ––––––––
A. Federal B. Unitary
C. Parliamentary D. Federal in form and unitary in Spirit
28. The President of India is a –––––––––
A. Real executive B. Titular executive C. De facto executive D. none of these
29. The salary of the President of India has been raised to
A. Rs.15,000 pm B. Rs. 33,000 pm C. Rs.50,000 pm D. Rs. 24,500 pm
30. The President may, for violaion of the Constitution, be removed from office by
A. impeachment
B. electoral college consisting of members of Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Legislative Assemblies
C. Prime Minister D. a no-confidence motion
31. The President can dissolve the Lok Sabha on ––––––––
A. advice of the Prime Minister B. advice of the Chief Justice of India
C. recommendation of the Lok Sabha D. recommendation of the Rajya Sabha
32. The President of India is not a member of Parliament because
A. he has to be impartial B. it is not required under the Constitution
C. his position will be lowered D. he holds an office of profit under the Govt.
33. The Vice-President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of
A. The elected members of Parliament
B. The elected members of Parliament and State Assemblies
C. The members of both the Houses of Parliament
D. Members of Lok Sabha and Legislative Councils
34. In a parliamentary system, to whom is the executive responsible?
A. President of the nation B. House of people C. Legislature D. Judiciary
35. India has a parliamentary democracy system as the
A. members of the Lok Sabha are elected by the people
B. Concil of Ministers are responsible to Parliament
C. Powers are distributed between the Centre and the States
D. Constitution has a single framework
36. Which one of the following rights is vital for the successful working of democracy?
A. Right to criticise B. Right to assemble
C. Right to property D. Right to association
37. The Prime Minister is responsible to the
A. Council of Ministers B. President C. Rajya Sabha D. Lok Sabha
38. Money Bills can only be introduced in the
A. Lok Sabha B. Rajya Sabha
C. joint session of both the Houses D. none of the above
39. Which of the following types of Bills can become law, despite disapproval by the Rajya Sabha?
A. Finance Bill B. Bills relating to Social Reforms
C. Bills relating to Concurrent List D. Lok Sabha
40. Under the Constitution, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha may be removed from office by
A. the majority party in the Houses adopting a no-confidence motion
B. a resolution passed by not less than half of the total membership
C. a resolution passed by atleast two thirds of the total membership of the House
D. a resolution passed by a majority of all the members of the House
41. Which part of the Constitution of India deals with Citizenship?
A. I B. II C. III D. IV
42. By which constitution Amendment Bill was the voting age reduced from 21 years to 18 years?
A. 48th B. 57th C. 61st D. 63rd
43. Judges of a High Court are appointed by the President with the consent of the
A. Governor of the State concerned
B. Governor and the Chief Justice of the High Court concerned
C. Governor and the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
D. Governor, the Chief Justice of the High Court concerned and the Chief Justice of India
44. To be eligible to become a judge of a High Court, the candidate should be a
A. a practising advocate of 5 years in a Sessions Court
B. a practising advocate of 5 years in a High Court
C. a practising advocate of 10 years in a High Court
D. a practising advocate of 5 years in the Supreme Court
45. After retirement, a judge can undertake private practice of law
A. in the same court B. only in a lower court
C. wherever he/she wishes D. in another court of the same level or a higher court
46. From which date a new service tax regime covering houses and flats in residential complexes
and eight other services came into effect?
A. 1st July 2005 B. 16th June 2005 C. 1st December 2004 D. 1st June 2005
47. The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha can be removed by a resolution
A. passed by a two-thirds majority of its total strength
B. passed by a simple majority of its total membership at that time
C. moved by Rajya Sabha and passed by Lok Sabha D. none of these
48. The Lok Sabha Secretariat comes under direct supervision of the
A. Ministry of Home Affairs B. Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
C. President of India D. Lok Sabha Speaker
49. According to the 44th Amendment Bill
A. Fundamental Rights are given supremacy over Directive Principles
B. Parliament get Supreme Power
C. Right to Property has been taken away from the list of Fundamental Rights
D. None of these
50. Which Amendment to the Constitution gave primacy to Directive Principles over Fundamental
Rights?
A. 44th B. 42nd C. 40th D. 25th
51. When did India had its first General Elections?
A. 1947 B. 1949 C. 1950 D. 1951
52. A Parliamentary Bill passed by the Lok Sabha is sent to the President for his assent. The
President sends it back to the Lok Sabha for reconsideration. If the Lok Sabha agains
passes the Bill and sends it to the President for assent, the President
A. must approve it B. can again send the Bill for reconsideration
C. can take the help of the Supreme Court D. can arrange for a referendum
53. What is the salary of the Chief Justice of India?
A. Rs.30,000 B. Rs.10,000 C. Rs.33,000 D. Rs.25,000
54. Which of the following form part of the Budget in India?
1) Estimated Income and Expenditure for the following year
2) Revised figures for the preceding year
3) Revised estimates for the current year
4) Actual figures for the previous year
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
A. 1 and 2 B. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1, 3 and 4
55. Which one of the following is not the occasion for criticising the administration in the Lok Sabha?
A. General discussion on the budget B. Voting on demands for grants
C. Motion of thanks to the President D. Discussion on the Finance Bill
56. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of Indian administration?
A. Uniformity B. Decentralisation C. Dyarchy D. Independent Judiciary
57. Which of the following statements regarding the Planning Commission is not true?
1) It is a body consisting of only specialists
2) It has been regarded as a Super Cabinet
3) It consists of both generalists and specialists
4) It consists of nominees of the National Development Council
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3 C. 3 and 4 D. 1 and 4
58. Which of the following are not subject to the detailed audit of the Comptroller and Auditor-
General of India?
1) All Co-operative Societies
2) All Public Corporations
3) All civil expenditure
4) All defence expenditure
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3 C. 3 and 4 D. 1 and 4
59. A rigid Constitution is one which
A. cannot be amended
B. can be amended only by a new constituent assembly
C. can be amended only by two-thirds majority of the members present and wrong
D. can be amended by any procedure other than ordinary law making process prescribed by
the Constitution
60. The system of proportional representation as an electoral mechanism ensures
A. majority rule B. stability in Government
C. common political thinking D. minority representation
61. Which one of the following is not an essential feature of the parliamentary system?
A. Fusion of the Executive and Legislature B. Nominal Head of the State
C. Collective responsibility D. Fixed tenure
62. In which one of the following forms of government is the second chamber an indispensable
part of the legislature?
A. Unitary Government B. Federal Government
C. Parliamentary Government D. Presidential Government
63. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Form of Government) (Essential features)
a) Cabinet Government 1) Separation of powers
b) Presidential Government 2) Collective responsibility
c) Federal Government 3) Concentration of Powers
d) Unitary Government 4) Division of powers
5) Administrative law
Codes:
a b c d
A. 3 4 2 1
B. 2 1 4 3
C. 3 4 1 2
D 4 3 2 5
64. The object of the adjournment motion in parliament is to
A. collect information from the ministers
B. make a cut in the budget proposals
C. criticise a particular policy of the government
D. topple the government
65. Which one of the following has enhanced its power most from the system of delegated legislation?
A. The legislative B. The legislative committees
C. The civil service D. The Council of Ministers
66. Under the term ‘Double Jeopardy’ implied in Clause 2 of Article 20 of the Constitution of
India, a person
A. convicted by a court of law cannot be punished under department proceedings for the
same offence
B. punished departmentally cannot be prosecuted in a court of law for the same offence
C. shall not be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once
D. cannot be subjected to proceedings in civil courts for disobedience of an injunction along
with criminal
67. According to the Constitution, the Lok Sabha must meet at least
A. thrice each year with no more than two months between session
B. twice each year with no more than three months between sessions
C. twice each year with no more than four months between sessions
D. twice each year with no more than six months between sessions
68. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
a) Division 1) Bring the debate to a close
b) Guillotine 2) Formal proposal made by a member to the
House
c) Motion 3) Relates to interpretation or enforcement of
the Rules of Procedure or Constitution
d) Point of Order 4) Concludes discussion on demand for grants
5) Mode of arriving at a decision
a b c d
A. 4 5 1 2
B. 5 4 1 3
C. 5 4 2 3
D. 4 5 2 1
69. According to the Constitution of India, a new All India Service can be instituted with the
initiative taken by
A. more than two-thirds of the States B. the Inter-State Council
C. the Lok Sabha D. the Rajya Sabha
70. Which one of the following Parliamentary Committees in India acts as a ‘Watch dog’ on
departmental expenditures and irregularities?
A. Estimates Committee B. Committee on Public Undertakings
C. Public Accounts Committee D. Committee on Public Assurances
71. Provisions of the Indian Constitution relating to the formation of new States can be amended
by
A. two-third majority of the members present and voting in each House of the Parliament
provided they also constitute the majority of the total membership in each House
B. a Parliamentary resolution which should be ratified by a majority of State Legislatures
C. a simple majority in each House of Parliament
D. a three-fourth majority in each House of Parliament
72. Which of the following are the main jurisdictions of the High Court of a State?
1) Original jurisdiction
2) Appellate jurisdiction
3) Supervisory jurisdiction
4) Adversory jurisdiction
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 2, 3 and 4 C. 1, 3 and 4 D. 1, 2 and 4
73. Which of the following statements regarding the Supreme Court of India are correct?
1) It has the power to entertain appeal from any court or tribunal within India
2) It has the power to deliver advisory opinion on any question of fact or law referred to it
by the President
3) Salaries of the Judges of the Supreme Court are subject to vote by the Parliament
4) Its jurisdiction is binding on all other courts within India
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4 C. 2, 3 and 4 D. 1, 2 and 4
74. There is a simple integrated judiciary in
A. India, Canada and Australia B. India, Nigeria and Canada
C. The U.S.A., India and Australia D. The U.S.A., India and Canada
75. Which one of the following States has a seat reserved in the Legislative Assembly on the
basis of religion?
A. Goa B. Sikkim C. Mizoram D. J & K
76. The quorum requirement in the Rajya Sabha is
A. 25 B. 50 C. 100 D. 126
77. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
1) The Indian Union - Union list, State list and Concurrent list
2) Canadian Federation - Dual citizenship
3) The American Federation - Dual citizenship
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes
A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3 C. 1 and 3 D. 1, 2 and 3
78. ‘Consolidated Fund of India’ is created under
A. Article 260 B. Article 262 C. Article 266 D. Article 268
79. In connection with demand for grants, the Lok Sabha has a right to
A. increase the amount if the Ministry has failed to provide proper expenditure on a welfare measure
B. increase or decrease the amount to be paid from the ‘charged’ expenditure
C. refuse or assent wholly or partly any demand for grant for welfare measure
D. refuse or assent the demand of grants for salaries from Consolidated Fund of India
80. Which of the following features are present in the Indian Constitution?
1) Multiple procedures for amendment
2) States not empowered to initiate amendment
3) Certain amendments have to be passed just by State Legislatures
4) Joint-sittings of Parliament to solve disputes regarding Constitutional amendments
81. Which one of the following classes of bills have been excluded from the category of ‘Money Bills’?
A. Bills providing for the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulations of any tax.
B. Bills relating to the custody of consolidated fund or contingency fund
C. Bills providing for the imposition of fines or other pecuniary penalties
D. Bills relating to the regulation of borrowing of money or the giving of any guarantee by
the government
82. Zero Hour practice started in India from the year
A. 1952 B. 1962 C. 1972 D. 1977
83. The Committee on Petitioners attends to
A. the grievances regarding non-fulfillment of the assurances given by the ministers
B. the individual grievances arising in the course of day to day governmental administration
C. the complaints of corruption against the ministers
D. the matters of public importance concerning citizens grievances
84. Which one of the following functions in exercise of control over administration belongs to
the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament?
A. to suggest improvements for raising efficiency in government administration
B. to examine the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General
C. to propose increase in the expenditure on certain programmes of public welfare
D. to scrutinise the accounts submitted by the public companies
85. Tools of legislative control over administration are:
1) Budgetary debates
2) Adjourment motions
3) Question Hour
4) Cross-examination of civil servants
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
A. 1 and 4 B. 2 and 4 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
86. Which one of the following is the guardian of Fundamental Rights?
A. Legislature B. Executive C. Political parties D. Judiciary
87. The Right to Constitutional Remedies available to citizen of India is under Article
A. 19 B. 17 C. 32 D. 30
88. The grant of Universal adult franchise creates
A. Legal equality B. Social equality C. Economic equality D. Political equality
89. Privilege Motion can be raised against a minister when he
A. loses confidence in the government B. absents himself for a long time
C. withholds the facts of a case or gives a distorted version of facts
D. avoids collective responsibility of the Cabinet
90. Judicial Review is a feature of
A. unitary government B. presidential government
C. federal government D. parliamentary government
91. Which one of the following is the example of Plural Executive?
A. England B. America C. Switzerland D. India
92. The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha has
A. no right to vote B. a right to vote in case of a tie
C. voting right in all the matters D. a right to vote only on amendment bills
93. The law making body at the Centre and in Tamil Nadu are having
A. one House at the Centre and two Houses in Tamil Nadu
B. one House in Tamil Nadu and one House at the Centre
C. two Houses at the Centre and two Houses in Tamil Nadu
D. two Houses at the Centre and one House in Tamil Nadu
94. The salary of the President is
A. liable to income tax B. not subject to income tax
C. subject to special rate of income tax D. none of the above
95. Features of the Indian judiciary are
A. a single, unified system B. free and independent
C. final interpreter of the Constitution D. all the above
96. The Constitution of a State is
A. sacred document B. the basic laws of the land which can not amended
C. the basic laws of the land which the people gives to themselves.
D. a set of rules within a government should strictly work .
97. The proclamation of national emergencies ceases to operate unless approved by Parliament within
A. one month B. two months C. three months D. six months
98. Consider the following statements:
I. Jammu and Kashmir is one of the States specified in the First Schedule of the Constitu
tion of India.
II. It is a part of the territory of India
III. Article 370 accords special status to Jammu and Kashmir
IV. Jammu and Kashmir has its own Constitution
Of these statements
A. Andhra Pradesh B. Tamil Nadu C. Rajasthan D. Kerala
99. Match List I with List II correctly and select your answer using the codes given below:
List I List II
a) Chairman of Public 1. Vice President
Accounts Committee
b) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha 2. Appointed by the President
c) Deputy Chairman 3. Appointed by the Speaker
d) Chairman of Union Public Service 4. Elected by the Rajya Sabha
Codes:
a b c d
A. 3 1 4 2
B. 2 3 4 1
C. 3 1 2 4
D. 4 2 1 3
100.The two Houses of the Parliament should be summoned
A. twice a year B. thrice a year C. four time a year D. once a year
ANSWERS
1. D 2. D 3. C 4. B 5. B 6. B 7. D 8. A 9. B 10. A 11. A 12. B 13. A 14. C 15. B 16. C 17. B 18. D 19. D 20. C 21. B 22. B 23. A 24. C 25. C 26. A 27. D 28. B 29. C 30. A 31. A 32. D 33. C 34. B 35. B 36. A 37. D 38. A 39. A 40. D 41. B 42. C 43. D 44. C 45. D 46. B 47. B 48. D 49. C 50. B 51. D 52. A 53. C 54. D 55. C 56. C 57. D 58. A 59. D 60. D 61. D 62. B 63. B 64. C 65. B 66. C 67. D 68. C 69. D 70. C 71. C 72. A 73. D 74. B 75. D 76. A 77. C 78. C 79. C 80. B 81. C 82. B 83. D 84. B 85. C 86. D 87. C 88. D 89. C 90. C 91. C 92. A 93. D 94. B 95. D 96. C 97. B 98. A 99. A 100. A
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