Practice Test 04
1. Which of the following is not in the State List under the Constitution of India?
A. Fisheries B. Agriculture C. Insurance D. Betting and Gambling
2. The constitution of India borrowed the scheme of Indian Federation from the Constitution of
A. USA B. Canada C. Ireland D. UK
3. Social equality means
A. each person should perform the functions according to his status
B. no effort should be made to modify the existing social system
C. no person should be made to suffer a position of relative inferiority in relation to other
person due to differences in caste, race, religion, etc.
D. special effort to improve the lot of weaker section.
4. Which one of the following statements regarding Judiciary in India is correct?
A. Supreme Court of India is free from the control and influence of legislature and
executive
B. Subordinate courts are at the head of the Judiciary hierarchy of the State
C. The Chief Justice and other judges of the High Court are appointed by the Governor in
consultation with the Chief Justice of India
D. A High Court can withdraw a case from a subordinate court and can deal with the
case itself if it is satisfied that the case involves a substantial point of constitutional law.
5. Which one of the following is in the concurrent list in the Constitution of India?
A. Population Control and Family Planning B. Public Health and Sanitation
C. Capitation taxes D. Treasure trove
6. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the
lists:
List I List II
(Features of the Indian Constitution) (Borrowed from)
a. Fundamental Rights 1. U.K.
b. Parliamentary system of Govt. 2. U.S.A.
c. Emergency Provisions 3. Ireland
d. Directive Principles of State Policy 4. German Reich
5. Canada
a b c d
A. 2 4 5 1
B. 5 1 3 4
C. 2 1 4 3
D. 1 2 4 3
7. Which one of the following comes under the jurisdiction of both the High Court and the
Supreme Court?
A. Disputes between the Centre and the States
B. Disputes between the States inter se
C. Protection of the Fundamental Rights
D. Protection against the violation of the Constitution
8. Which of the following statements regarding the Constituent Assembly are true?
1. It was not based on adult franchise.
2. It resulted from direct elections.
3. It was a multi-party body.
4. It worked through several committees.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3 C. 1 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
9. Which one of the following determines that the Indian Constitution is federal?
A. A written and rigid Constitution B. An independent Judiciary
C. Vesting of residuary powers with the Centre
D. Distribution of powers between the Centre and the States
10. Who among the following are appointed by the President of India?
1. The Chairman, Finance Commission
2. The Deputy Chairman, Planning Commission
3. The Chief Minister of a Union Territory
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 2 and 3 only
11. Which one of the following is/are among the functions of the Election Commission of India?
1. Conduct of election for the posts of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker, Lok Sabha and
the Deputy Chairman, Rajya Sabha
2. Conduct of election to the Corporation and Municipalities
3. Deciding on all doubts and disputes arising out of elections
Select the correct answer the codes gives below:
Codes:
A. 1 and 2 B. 1 and 3 C. 2 and 3 D. None of these
12. Which of the following electoral systems have been adopted for various election in India?
1. System of direct election on the basis of adult suffrage
2. System of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote
3. List system of proportional representation
4. Cumulative system of indirect elections.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
A. 1 and 2 B. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 2, 3 and 4
13. The parliamentary systems of India and of Britain differ on the account of
A. bicameral legislature B. system of collective responsibility
C. the system of judicial review D. the Prime Minister is separately elected by people
14. Titular sovereign means
A. A person who enjoys absolute powers and is not accountable to any one
B. A person who is vested with all sovereign powers by the Constitution but whose powers
are enjoyed by someone else
C. A person who enjoys all the powers vested in him by the Constitution
D. A sovereign elected by the Parliament
15. The basic structure theory of the Constitution of India implies that
A. certain features of the Constitution are so essential to it that they cannot be abrogated
B. Fundamental Rights cannot be abridged or taken away
C. the Constitution cannot be amended except in accordance with the procedure prescribed
in Act 368.
D. The Preamable of the Constitution cannot be amended for it is a not a part of the
Constitution and at the same time represents its real spirit.
16. A secular State is one which
A. is irreligious B. is anti-religious C. is pro-religious D. has no religion of its own
17. Which of the following are matters on which a constitutional amendment is possible only
with the ratification of the legislatures of not less than one-half of the States?
1. Election of the President
2. Representation of States in Parliament
3. Any of the Lists in the 7th Schedule
4. Abolition of the Legislative Council of a State
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 1, 2 and 4 C. 1, 3 and 4 D. 2, 3 and 4
18. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, etc., (Article 15 of the Constitution of
India) is a Fundamental Right classifiable under
A. the right to Freedom of Religion B. the Right against exploitation
C. the Cultural and Educational Rights D. the right the Equality
19. Which one of the following is not explicitly stated in the Constitution of India but followed as
a convention?
A. The Finance Minister is to be a member of the Lower House
B. The Prime Minister has to resign if he loses majority in the Lower House
C. All the parts of India are to be represented in the Council of Ministers
D. In the event of both the President and the Vice President demitting office simultaneously
before the end of their tenure, the Speaker of the Lower House of Parliament will
officiate as the President.
20. If the number of seats allocated to a State in the Lok Sabha is 42, then number of seats
reserved for the Scheduled Castes in that State will be
A. 21 B. 14 C. 7 D. 6
21. In the Indian context, the term ‘De-notified tribes’refers to
A. Tribes which are aboriginals B. Nomadic tribes
C. Tribes practising shifting cultivation
D. Tribes which were earlier classified as criminal tribes
22. What is the system of governance in the Panchayati Raj set up?
A. Single-tier structure of local self government at the village level
B. Two-tier system of local self-government at the village and block levels
C. Three-tier system of local government, at the village, block and district levels
D. Four-tier system of local self-government at the village, block, district and state levels
23. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the
States falls under its
A. Advisory jurisdiction B. Appellate jurisdiction
C. Original Jurisdiction D. Constitutional jurisdiction
24. According to the Constitution of India, the term ‘district judge’ shall not include
A. Chief Presidency Magistrate B. Sessions Judge
C. Tribunal Judge D. Chief Judge of small court
25. Which one of the following countries has more or less evolved a two-party system?
A. Sri Lanka B. Bangladesh C. Pakistan D. Myanmar
26. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the
Lists:
ListI : Functionaries
a. President of India
b. Judges of the Supreme Court
c. Members of Parliament
d. Ministers of the Union
List II: Oaths or affirmations
1. Secrecy of Information
2. Faithful Discharge of Duties
3. Faith and Allegiance to the Constitution of India
4. Upholding Allegiance to the Constitution of India
Codes:
a b c d
A. 3 4 1 2
B. 4 3 2 1
C. 3 4 2 1
D. 4 3 1 2
27. If the Prime Minster of India belonged to the Upper House of Parliament
A. he will not be able to speak on the budget in the Lower House.
B. he will not be able to speak on the budget in the Lower House.
C. he can make statements only in the Upper House.
D. he has to become a member of the Lower House within six months after being sworn in
as the Prime Minister.
28. Proportional representation is not necessary in a country where
A. there are no reserved constituencies B. a two-party system has developed
C. the first-past-post system prevails
D. there is a fusion of Presidential and Parliamentary forms of government
29. To be appointed as Advocate-General of the State, the person should possess the qualifications
necessary for appointment as
A. A Judge of the Supreme Court B. A Judge of the High Court
C. A State Governor D. Chief Minister of the State
30. To gullotine the demands for grants in Lok Sabha means
A. Rejecting the demands B. To vote on the demands without discussion on them
C. To approve the expenditure proposals D. To defer consideration of the expenditure.
31. The Emergency can be proclaimed by
A. The President B. Parliament C. Prime Minister D. Law Minister
32. The Election Commission is constituted
A. every five years B. every ten years
C. every six years D. It is a permanent constitutional body
33. The Preamble of which country emphasises ‘domestic tranquaillity?
A. India B. Russia C. U.S.A. D. France
34. Sarkaria Commission did not deal with
A. Formation of States B. Article 356
C. Anandpur Sahib Resolution D. Centre-Sate Relations
35. The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee is normally
A. The Prime Minister B. The Speaker
C. Leader of the opposition party D. Finance Minister
36. Which of the following will not constitute Consolidated Fund of India?
A. All revenues received by the Government of India
B. All loans raised by the Government of India
C. Other Public Money D. None of these
37. What is Oligarchy?
A. Govt. by a priestly class B. Govt. by military people
C. Govt. by a few people D. None of the above
38. The number of Articles our Constitution contains is
A. 375 B. 380 C. 444 D. 400
39. State Governors hold office
A. During good behaviour B. During the pleasure of Chief Minister
C. During the pleasure of the President D. For a fixed and unalterable term
40. The Preamable of our Constitution envisages
A. Theoratic state B. Sovereign, democratic, secular and socialistic republic
C. Secular democracy D. Monarchy
41. The maximum period the Rajya Sabha can retain a Money Bill is
A. one month B. six months C. fourteen days D. one week
42. The writ ‘prohibition’ensures
A. issuing directions by a higher court to lower court
B. that no person remains in jail without any cause
C. issuing direction by Supreme Court or High Courts to anybody to do some particular
thing.
D. stopping proceedings in a lower court on the ground of excess of jurisdiction.
43. Who among the following enjoys the rank of a Cabinet Minister in the Union Cabinet?
A. Secretary to the Government of India
B. Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission
C. Principal Secretary to the Prime Minister
D. Supreme Court Judge
44. Parliament can legislate on matters listed in the State list
A. With the prior permission of the President
B. Only after the Constitution is amended suitably
C. In class of inconsistency among State legislations
D. At the request of two or more States
45. The judges of Supreme Court can be removed by
A. The President B. Parliament C. Prime Minister D. Law Minister
46. The Finance Commission is appointed every
A. 2 years B. 3 years C. 4 years D. 5 years E. None
47. The four main objectives of our Constitution as indicated in the Preamable are
A. Socialism, Securalism, Non-alignment and Neutrality
B. Justice-Social, Economic, Political and Religious
C. Justice, adult franchise, Liberty and Fraternity D. None of these
48. In the Rajya Sabha, the States have been provided
A. equal representation B. representation on the basis of population
C. representation on the basis of population and size
D. representation on the basis of size.
49. Article 33 of the Constitution of India empowers Parliament to .......
A. dissolve State Legislatures
B. restrict or abrogate Fundamental Rights in their application to armed forces or other
forces charged with the maintenance of public order
C. recall State Governors
D. issue directions to State Governments
50. What is the duration of zero hour in the Lok Sabha?
A. 15 minutes B. Half an hour C. One hour D. Not specified
51. How is the change in government in modern State carried out?
A. Through violence and bloodshed
B. Through compromise and electoral adjustments among the competing forces
C. Through elections and smooth transfer of power
D. By bringing all aspects of life to a standstill
52. The President of India must have completed the age of
A. 25 years B. 35 years C. 30 years D. 40 years
53. The Rajya Sabha’s life is
A. 6 years B. 2 yars C. permanent D. 7 years
54. To keep the President’s Rule in force in a State it must be extended
A. every year B. every six months C. every three months D. None of these
55. Who can participate the business of Parliament without being a member?
A. Vice-President B. Solicitor General C. Attorney General D. Chief Justice
56. The writ certiorari ensures
A. issuing directions by a higher court to lower court
B. issuing direction by Supreme court or High Courts to inferior court to remove a suit and
adjudicate upon the validity of the proceedings.
C. that no person remains in jail without any cause
D. stopping proceedings in a lower court on the ground of excess of jurisdiction.
57. In an election, electioneering has to cease in a constituency
A. 2 days before the poll
B. 48 hours before the commencement of polling
C. 48 hours before the closing hour of polling
D. 24 hours before the poll
58. Can Fundamental Rights be amended?
A. Yes B. No
59. Who enjoys the legislative powers?
A. President B. Prime Minister C. Council of Ministers D. Parliament
60. The amendment regarding the procedure of the election of the President must be passed by
A. Both the Houses B. Only Lok Sabha C. Only Rajya Sabha
D. Both the Houses and by not less than half of the State Legislatures
61. The Constitution of India was amended for the first time in
A. January, 1951 B. June, 1951 C. June, 1952 D. July, 1952
62. The salaries of the Judges of the Supreme Court are charged on the Consolidated Fund of
India because
A. they may get salaries regularly every month.
B. their salaries may be free from legislative vote
C. there may not be any cut in their salaries
D. their financial position may be secured to enable them to dispense impartial justice.
63. Which of the following will not make a Bill, a money Bill?
A. The imposition, abolition, alteration or regulation of any tax
B.The imposition of lines, or other pecuniary penalties
C. The appropriation of money of the Consolidated Fund of India
D. Salaries of President, MPs
64. What is ergotocracy?
A. Govt. run by workers B. Govt. run by old people
C. Govt. run by rich people D. None of above
65. When the office of the President falls vacant, the Vice-President automatically becomes
the President in
A. India B. Russia C. U.K. D. U.S.A.
66. The Rajya Sabha member must have completed the age of
A. 21 years B. 25 years C. 30 years D. 35 years
67. According to the Preamble. our Constitution envisages
A. Social justice only B. Economic justice only C. Political justice only D. all the above
68. The Fundamental Rights under the Indian Constitution can be suspended during
A. general election B. national emergency
C. all types of emergencies D. in all the above situations
69. The writ ‘Quo Warranto’ ensures
A. issuing directions by a higher court to lower court
B. issuing direction by Supreme Court or High Court to anybody to do some particular thing
C. Stopping proceedings in a lower court on the ground of excess of jurisdiction
D. to be issued by a court when a person acts in a capacity to which he is not entitled
70. Which of the following cannot be the reason to declare Financial Emergency?
A. threat to financial stability of India B. threat to the credit of India
C. drain of foreign exchange by smuggling, unauthorised trading etc.
D. financial bankruptcy
71. The voting age in general elections was reduced from 21 years to 18 by the
A. 72nd Amendment B. 62nd Amendment C. 61st Amendment D. 71st Amendment
72. In the Indian Constitution, the word ‘Cabinet’has been used only once, and it is in
A. Article 352 B. Article 74 C. Article 356 D. Article 76
73. Our Constitution was adopted on
A. 26th November, 1949 B. 15th August, 1945
C. 26th January, 1950 D. 15th August, 1947
74. When can a bill be referred to the Parliamentary Committee?
A. Just after being placed in the Parliament
B. After general debate/discussion in the second reading
C. After partial debate/discussion
D. After difference between the two Houses
75. The President of India can declare an emergency under Article 360 of the Constitution of
India if there is
A. war or any threat of war B. failure of constitutional machinery of a State
C. financial instablity in the centre D. armed rebellion in the country
76. Which of the following is not the Directive Principles of State Policy?
A. equal pay for men and women for equal work B. enforcement of prohibition
C. abolition of prostitution D. promotion of international peace
77. The writ Habeas Corpus ensures
A. issuing directions by a higher court to lower court
B. that no person remains in jail without any cause
C. issuing direction by Supreme Court or High Courts to anybody to do some particular thing.
D. stopping proceedings in a lower court on the ground of excess of jurisdiction
78. De facto sovereign refers to
A. a person who is the lawful ruler of the country
B. king who has lawfully inherited to the throne
C. a person or body of persons who actually exercise power
D. None of these
79. The power of issuing writs not only for Fundamental Rights but for other purposes also, is
with
A. Supreme Court B. High Courts C. Lower Courts D. President
80. The legal sovereignty resides in
A. the courts which decide the disputes B. the Constitution
C. the body which possesses supreme D. the head of the State
81. Money bills must be introduced in
A. Lok Sabha only B. Rajya Sabha only
C. Either of these two D. Both the Houses at a time
82. The Budget is presented to the Parliament normally on
A. The last day of March B. The last day of February
C. 15th March D. Ist April
83. The President’s Rule is imposed in a State
A. when a Chief Minister misbehaves
B. when the Governor becomes disloyal to the Centre
C. when there is breakdown of constitutional machinery
D. when there is police firing
84. The system of dual citizenship exists in
A. U.S.A. B. France C. India D. U.K.
85. The Emergency automatically suspends
A. Fundamental Rights under Article 19 B. the powers of the Governors
C. the powers of the Courts D. State government
86. The State Reorganisation Commission was appointed in
A. 1952 B. 1953 C. 1954 D. 1951
87. The most powerful agency for the formation of public opinion is
A. elections B. public meetings C. the press D. political parties
88. The basis of classifying government as Unitary and Federal is
A. relationship between the Centre and States
B. relationship between the Legislative and Executive
C. relationship between the Legislature and Judiciary
D. relationship between the Prime Minister and the President
89. Which one of the following is the exclusive power of the Council of States?
A. To Introduce a Money Bill B. To accept or reject a Money Bill
C. To decide whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not
D. To declare that in the national interest, Parliament should make laws in respect to any
matter that is included in the State Legislative List
90. The amendment regarding the formation of a New State by separating territory from any
other State must be passed by
A. both Houses of Parliament B. only Lok Sabha
C. only Rajya Sabha
D. both the Houses and before that the opinion of that state is to be ascertained by the
President
91. Who decides whether a bill is a Money Bill?
A. The Speaker of Lok Sabha B. The President of India
C. The Prime Minister D. Parliamentary Select Committee
92. There is no provision in the Constitution for the impeachment of
A. the Chief Justice of the High Court B. the Chief Justice of India
C. the Governor D. the Vice-President
93. All Ministers at the centre are appointed by
A. The Prime Minister B. The President
C. The Vice-President D. Home Minister
94. National flag of India was presented on behalf of
A. Indian National Congress B. The people of India
C. The women of India D. None of these
95. Which of the following will not be the condition under which the President can declare
Emergency?
A. when there is a war
B. when there is external aggression
C. when no party has got absolute majority to form ministry at the Centre
D. when there is internal disturbance
96. Under which one of the following Articles, the Supreme Court has been given the powers to
review any judgement pronounced or order made by it previously?
A. Article 130 B. Article 137 C. Article 138 D. Article 139
97. Which one of the following Articles has declared untouchability in any form as unconstitutional?
A. Article 14 B. Article 17 C. Article 44 D. Article 45
98. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
A. There is no provision of referendum in the Indian Constitution
B. The State Legislatures do not possess the right to initiate the amendment of the Constitution
C. The proposal for amending the Constitution can only be initiated in Lok Sabha
D. The Indian Constitution is partly flexible and partly rigid
99. The Fundamental Rights imply the rights
A. which are indispensable for the growth of human personality
B. which a man inherits from nature at the time of his birth
C. which are enforced by the State
D. which impose no obligation on a State
100.Which one of the following is also known as Laissez Faire theory?
A. Individualism B. Socialism C. Idealism D. Utilitarianism
ANSWERS
1. C 2. B 3. C 4. C 5. A 6. C 7. C 8. D 9. D 10. A 11. D 12. A 13. C 14. B 15. A 16. D 17. A 18. D 19. B 20. D 21. C 22. C 23. C 24. C 25. B 26. C 27. A 28. B 29. B 30. A 31. A 32. D 33. C 34. A 35. C 36. C 37. C 38. C 39. C 40. B 41. C 42. D 43. B 44. D 45. B 46. D 47. B 48. B 49. B 50. D 51. C 52. B 53. C 54. A 55. C 56. B 57. C 58. A 59. D 60. D 61. B 62. B 63. B 64. A 65. D 66. C 67. D 68. B 69. D 70. C 71. C 72. A 73. A 74. C 75. C 76. C 77. B 78. C 79. B 80. C 81. A 82. B 83. C 84. A 85. A 86. B 87. C 88. A 89. D 90. D 91. A 92. C 93. B 94. C 95. C 96. B 97. B 98. C 99. A 100. A
1. Which of the following is not in the State List under the Constitution of India?
A. Fisheries B. Agriculture C. Insurance D. Betting and Gambling
2. The constitution of India borrowed the scheme of Indian Federation from the Constitution of
A. USA B. Canada C. Ireland D. UK
3. Social equality means
A. each person should perform the functions according to his status
B. no effort should be made to modify the existing social system
C. no person should be made to suffer a position of relative inferiority in relation to other
person due to differences in caste, race, religion, etc.
D. special effort to improve the lot of weaker section.
4. Which one of the following statements regarding Judiciary in India is correct?
A. Supreme Court of India is free from the control and influence of legislature and
executive
B. Subordinate courts are at the head of the Judiciary hierarchy of the State
C. The Chief Justice and other judges of the High Court are appointed by the Governor in
consultation with the Chief Justice of India
D. A High Court can withdraw a case from a subordinate court and can deal with the
case itself if it is satisfied that the case involves a substantial point of constitutional law.
5. Which one of the following is in the concurrent list in the Constitution of India?
A. Population Control and Family Planning B. Public Health and Sanitation
C. Capitation taxes D. Treasure trove
6. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the
lists:
List I List II
(Features of the Indian Constitution) (Borrowed from)
a. Fundamental Rights 1. U.K.
b. Parliamentary system of Govt. 2. U.S.A.
c. Emergency Provisions 3. Ireland
d. Directive Principles of State Policy 4. German Reich
5. Canada
a b c d
A. 2 4 5 1
B. 5 1 3 4
C. 2 1 4 3
D. 1 2 4 3
7. Which one of the following comes under the jurisdiction of both the High Court and the
Supreme Court?
A. Disputes between the Centre and the States
B. Disputes between the States inter se
C. Protection of the Fundamental Rights
D. Protection against the violation of the Constitution
8. Which of the following statements regarding the Constituent Assembly are true?
1. It was not based on adult franchise.
2. It resulted from direct elections.
3. It was a multi-party body.
4. It worked through several committees.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3 C. 1 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
9. Which one of the following determines that the Indian Constitution is federal?
A. A written and rigid Constitution B. An independent Judiciary
C. Vesting of residuary powers with the Centre
D. Distribution of powers between the Centre and the States
10. Who among the following are appointed by the President of India?
1. The Chairman, Finance Commission
2. The Deputy Chairman, Planning Commission
3. The Chief Minister of a Union Territory
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 2 and 3 only
11. Which one of the following is/are among the functions of the Election Commission of India?
1. Conduct of election for the posts of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker, Lok Sabha and
the Deputy Chairman, Rajya Sabha
2. Conduct of election to the Corporation and Municipalities
3. Deciding on all doubts and disputes arising out of elections
Select the correct answer the codes gives below:
Codes:
A. 1 and 2 B. 1 and 3 C. 2 and 3 D. None of these
12. Which of the following electoral systems have been adopted for various election in India?
1. System of direct election on the basis of adult suffrage
2. System of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote
3. List system of proportional representation
4. Cumulative system of indirect elections.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
A. 1 and 2 B. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 2, 3 and 4
13. The parliamentary systems of India and of Britain differ on the account of
A. bicameral legislature B. system of collective responsibility
C. the system of judicial review D. the Prime Minister is separately elected by people
14. Titular sovereign means
A. A person who enjoys absolute powers and is not accountable to any one
B. A person who is vested with all sovereign powers by the Constitution but whose powers
are enjoyed by someone else
C. A person who enjoys all the powers vested in him by the Constitution
D. A sovereign elected by the Parliament
15. The basic structure theory of the Constitution of India implies that
A. certain features of the Constitution are so essential to it that they cannot be abrogated
B. Fundamental Rights cannot be abridged or taken away
C. the Constitution cannot be amended except in accordance with the procedure prescribed
in Act 368.
D. The Preamable of the Constitution cannot be amended for it is a not a part of the
Constitution and at the same time represents its real spirit.
16. A secular State is one which
A. is irreligious B. is anti-religious C. is pro-religious D. has no religion of its own
17. Which of the following are matters on which a constitutional amendment is possible only
with the ratification of the legislatures of not less than one-half of the States?
1. Election of the President
2. Representation of States in Parliament
3. Any of the Lists in the 7th Schedule
4. Abolition of the Legislative Council of a State
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 1, 2 and 4 C. 1, 3 and 4 D. 2, 3 and 4
18. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, etc., (Article 15 of the Constitution of
India) is a Fundamental Right classifiable under
A. the right to Freedom of Religion B. the Right against exploitation
C. the Cultural and Educational Rights D. the right the Equality
19. Which one of the following is not explicitly stated in the Constitution of India but followed as
a convention?
A. The Finance Minister is to be a member of the Lower House
B. The Prime Minister has to resign if he loses majority in the Lower House
C. All the parts of India are to be represented in the Council of Ministers
D. In the event of both the President and the Vice President demitting office simultaneously
before the end of their tenure, the Speaker of the Lower House of Parliament will
officiate as the President.
20. If the number of seats allocated to a State in the Lok Sabha is 42, then number of seats
reserved for the Scheduled Castes in that State will be
A. 21 B. 14 C. 7 D. 6
21. In the Indian context, the term ‘De-notified tribes’refers to
A. Tribes which are aboriginals B. Nomadic tribes
C. Tribes practising shifting cultivation
D. Tribes which were earlier classified as criminal tribes
22. What is the system of governance in the Panchayati Raj set up?
A. Single-tier structure of local self government at the village level
B. Two-tier system of local self-government at the village and block levels
C. Three-tier system of local government, at the village, block and district levels
D. Four-tier system of local self-government at the village, block, district and state levels
23. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the
States falls under its
A. Advisory jurisdiction B. Appellate jurisdiction
C. Original Jurisdiction D. Constitutional jurisdiction
24. According to the Constitution of India, the term ‘district judge’ shall not include
A. Chief Presidency Magistrate B. Sessions Judge
C. Tribunal Judge D. Chief Judge of small court
25. Which one of the following countries has more or less evolved a two-party system?
A. Sri Lanka B. Bangladesh C. Pakistan D. Myanmar
26. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the
Lists:
ListI : Functionaries
a. President of India
b. Judges of the Supreme Court
c. Members of Parliament
d. Ministers of the Union
List II: Oaths or affirmations
1. Secrecy of Information
2. Faithful Discharge of Duties
3. Faith and Allegiance to the Constitution of India
4. Upholding Allegiance to the Constitution of India
Codes:
a b c d
A. 3 4 1 2
B. 4 3 2 1
C. 3 4 2 1
D. 4 3 1 2
27. If the Prime Minster of India belonged to the Upper House of Parliament
A. he will not be able to speak on the budget in the Lower House.
B. he will not be able to speak on the budget in the Lower House.
C. he can make statements only in the Upper House.
D. he has to become a member of the Lower House within six months after being sworn in
as the Prime Minister.
28. Proportional representation is not necessary in a country where
A. there are no reserved constituencies B. a two-party system has developed
C. the first-past-post system prevails
D. there is a fusion of Presidential and Parliamentary forms of government
29. To be appointed as Advocate-General of the State, the person should possess the qualifications
necessary for appointment as
A. A Judge of the Supreme Court B. A Judge of the High Court
C. A State Governor D. Chief Minister of the State
30. To gullotine the demands for grants in Lok Sabha means
A. Rejecting the demands B. To vote on the demands without discussion on them
C. To approve the expenditure proposals D. To defer consideration of the expenditure.
31. The Emergency can be proclaimed by
A. The President B. Parliament C. Prime Minister D. Law Minister
32. The Election Commission is constituted
A. every five years B. every ten years
C. every six years D. It is a permanent constitutional body
33. The Preamble of which country emphasises ‘domestic tranquaillity?
A. India B. Russia C. U.S.A. D. France
34. Sarkaria Commission did not deal with
A. Formation of States B. Article 356
C. Anandpur Sahib Resolution D. Centre-Sate Relations
35. The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee is normally
A. The Prime Minister B. The Speaker
C. Leader of the opposition party D. Finance Minister
36. Which of the following will not constitute Consolidated Fund of India?
A. All revenues received by the Government of India
B. All loans raised by the Government of India
C. Other Public Money D. None of these
37. What is Oligarchy?
A. Govt. by a priestly class B. Govt. by military people
C. Govt. by a few people D. None of the above
38. The number of Articles our Constitution contains is
A. 375 B. 380 C. 444 D. 400
39. State Governors hold office
A. During good behaviour B. During the pleasure of Chief Minister
C. During the pleasure of the President D. For a fixed and unalterable term
40. The Preamable of our Constitution envisages
A. Theoratic state B. Sovereign, democratic, secular and socialistic republic
C. Secular democracy D. Monarchy
41. The maximum period the Rajya Sabha can retain a Money Bill is
A. one month B. six months C. fourteen days D. one week
42. The writ ‘prohibition’ensures
A. issuing directions by a higher court to lower court
B. that no person remains in jail without any cause
C. issuing direction by Supreme Court or High Courts to anybody to do some particular
thing.
D. stopping proceedings in a lower court on the ground of excess of jurisdiction.
43. Who among the following enjoys the rank of a Cabinet Minister in the Union Cabinet?
A. Secretary to the Government of India
B. Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission
C. Principal Secretary to the Prime Minister
D. Supreme Court Judge
44. Parliament can legislate on matters listed in the State list
A. With the prior permission of the President
B. Only after the Constitution is amended suitably
C. In class of inconsistency among State legislations
D. At the request of two or more States
45. The judges of Supreme Court can be removed by
A. The President B. Parliament C. Prime Minister D. Law Minister
46. The Finance Commission is appointed every
A. 2 years B. 3 years C. 4 years D. 5 years E. None
47. The four main objectives of our Constitution as indicated in the Preamable are
A. Socialism, Securalism, Non-alignment and Neutrality
B. Justice-Social, Economic, Political and Religious
C. Justice, adult franchise, Liberty and Fraternity D. None of these
48. In the Rajya Sabha, the States have been provided
A. equal representation B. representation on the basis of population
C. representation on the basis of population and size
D. representation on the basis of size.
49. Article 33 of the Constitution of India empowers Parliament to .......
A. dissolve State Legislatures
B. restrict or abrogate Fundamental Rights in their application to armed forces or other
forces charged with the maintenance of public order
C. recall State Governors
D. issue directions to State Governments
50. What is the duration of zero hour in the Lok Sabha?
A. 15 minutes B. Half an hour C. One hour D. Not specified
51. How is the change in government in modern State carried out?
A. Through violence and bloodshed
B. Through compromise and electoral adjustments among the competing forces
C. Through elections and smooth transfer of power
D. By bringing all aspects of life to a standstill
52. The President of India must have completed the age of
A. 25 years B. 35 years C. 30 years D. 40 years
53. The Rajya Sabha’s life is
A. 6 years B. 2 yars C. permanent D. 7 years
54. To keep the President’s Rule in force in a State it must be extended
A. every year B. every six months C. every three months D. None of these
55. Who can participate the business of Parliament without being a member?
A. Vice-President B. Solicitor General C. Attorney General D. Chief Justice
56. The writ certiorari ensures
A. issuing directions by a higher court to lower court
B. issuing direction by Supreme court or High Courts to inferior court to remove a suit and
adjudicate upon the validity of the proceedings.
C. that no person remains in jail without any cause
D. stopping proceedings in a lower court on the ground of excess of jurisdiction.
57. In an election, electioneering has to cease in a constituency
A. 2 days before the poll
B. 48 hours before the commencement of polling
C. 48 hours before the closing hour of polling
D. 24 hours before the poll
58. Can Fundamental Rights be amended?
A. Yes B. No
59. Who enjoys the legislative powers?
A. President B. Prime Minister C. Council of Ministers D. Parliament
60. The amendment regarding the procedure of the election of the President must be passed by
A. Both the Houses B. Only Lok Sabha C. Only Rajya Sabha
D. Both the Houses and by not less than half of the State Legislatures
61. The Constitution of India was amended for the first time in
A. January, 1951 B. June, 1951 C. June, 1952 D. July, 1952
62. The salaries of the Judges of the Supreme Court are charged on the Consolidated Fund of
India because
A. they may get salaries regularly every month.
B. their salaries may be free from legislative vote
C. there may not be any cut in their salaries
D. their financial position may be secured to enable them to dispense impartial justice.
63. Which of the following will not make a Bill, a money Bill?
A. The imposition, abolition, alteration or regulation of any tax
B.The imposition of lines, or other pecuniary penalties
C. The appropriation of money of the Consolidated Fund of India
D. Salaries of President, MPs
64. What is ergotocracy?
A. Govt. run by workers B. Govt. run by old people
C. Govt. run by rich people D. None of above
65. When the office of the President falls vacant, the Vice-President automatically becomes
the President in
A. India B. Russia C. U.K. D. U.S.A.
66. The Rajya Sabha member must have completed the age of
A. 21 years B. 25 years C. 30 years D. 35 years
67. According to the Preamble. our Constitution envisages
A. Social justice only B. Economic justice only C. Political justice only D. all the above
68. The Fundamental Rights under the Indian Constitution can be suspended during
A. general election B. national emergency
C. all types of emergencies D. in all the above situations
69. The writ ‘Quo Warranto’ ensures
A. issuing directions by a higher court to lower court
B. issuing direction by Supreme Court or High Court to anybody to do some particular thing
C. Stopping proceedings in a lower court on the ground of excess of jurisdiction
D. to be issued by a court when a person acts in a capacity to which he is not entitled
70. Which of the following cannot be the reason to declare Financial Emergency?
A. threat to financial stability of India B. threat to the credit of India
C. drain of foreign exchange by smuggling, unauthorised trading etc.
D. financial bankruptcy
71. The voting age in general elections was reduced from 21 years to 18 by the
A. 72nd Amendment B. 62nd Amendment C. 61st Amendment D. 71st Amendment
72. In the Indian Constitution, the word ‘Cabinet’has been used only once, and it is in
A. Article 352 B. Article 74 C. Article 356 D. Article 76
73. Our Constitution was adopted on
A. 26th November, 1949 B. 15th August, 1945
C. 26th January, 1950 D. 15th August, 1947
74. When can a bill be referred to the Parliamentary Committee?
A. Just after being placed in the Parliament
B. After general debate/discussion in the second reading
C. After partial debate/discussion
D. After difference between the two Houses
75. The President of India can declare an emergency under Article 360 of the Constitution of
India if there is
A. war or any threat of war B. failure of constitutional machinery of a State
C. financial instablity in the centre D. armed rebellion in the country
76. Which of the following is not the Directive Principles of State Policy?
A. equal pay for men and women for equal work B. enforcement of prohibition
C. abolition of prostitution D. promotion of international peace
77. The writ Habeas Corpus ensures
A. issuing directions by a higher court to lower court
B. that no person remains in jail without any cause
C. issuing direction by Supreme Court or High Courts to anybody to do some particular thing.
D. stopping proceedings in a lower court on the ground of excess of jurisdiction
78. De facto sovereign refers to
A. a person who is the lawful ruler of the country
B. king who has lawfully inherited to the throne
C. a person or body of persons who actually exercise power
D. None of these
79. The power of issuing writs not only for Fundamental Rights but for other purposes also, is
with
A. Supreme Court B. High Courts C. Lower Courts D. President
80. The legal sovereignty resides in
A. the courts which decide the disputes B. the Constitution
C. the body which possesses supreme D. the head of the State
81. Money bills must be introduced in
A. Lok Sabha only B. Rajya Sabha only
C. Either of these two D. Both the Houses at a time
82. The Budget is presented to the Parliament normally on
A. The last day of March B. The last day of February
C. 15th March D. Ist April
83. The President’s Rule is imposed in a State
A. when a Chief Minister misbehaves
B. when the Governor becomes disloyal to the Centre
C. when there is breakdown of constitutional machinery
D. when there is police firing
84. The system of dual citizenship exists in
A. U.S.A. B. France C. India D. U.K.
85. The Emergency automatically suspends
A. Fundamental Rights under Article 19 B. the powers of the Governors
C. the powers of the Courts D. State government
86. The State Reorganisation Commission was appointed in
A. 1952 B. 1953 C. 1954 D. 1951
87. The most powerful agency for the formation of public opinion is
A. elections B. public meetings C. the press D. political parties
88. The basis of classifying government as Unitary and Federal is
A. relationship between the Centre and States
B. relationship between the Legislative and Executive
C. relationship between the Legislature and Judiciary
D. relationship between the Prime Minister and the President
89. Which one of the following is the exclusive power of the Council of States?
A. To Introduce a Money Bill B. To accept or reject a Money Bill
C. To decide whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not
D. To declare that in the national interest, Parliament should make laws in respect to any
matter that is included in the State Legislative List
90. The amendment regarding the formation of a New State by separating territory from any
other State must be passed by
A. both Houses of Parliament B. only Lok Sabha
C. only Rajya Sabha
D. both the Houses and before that the opinion of that state is to be ascertained by the
President
91. Who decides whether a bill is a Money Bill?
A. The Speaker of Lok Sabha B. The President of India
C. The Prime Minister D. Parliamentary Select Committee
92. There is no provision in the Constitution for the impeachment of
A. the Chief Justice of the High Court B. the Chief Justice of India
C. the Governor D. the Vice-President
93. All Ministers at the centre are appointed by
A. The Prime Minister B. The President
C. The Vice-President D. Home Minister
94. National flag of India was presented on behalf of
A. Indian National Congress B. The people of India
C. The women of India D. None of these
95. Which of the following will not be the condition under which the President can declare
Emergency?
A. when there is a war
B. when there is external aggression
C. when no party has got absolute majority to form ministry at the Centre
D. when there is internal disturbance
96. Under which one of the following Articles, the Supreme Court has been given the powers to
review any judgement pronounced or order made by it previously?
A. Article 130 B. Article 137 C. Article 138 D. Article 139
97. Which one of the following Articles has declared untouchability in any form as unconstitutional?
A. Article 14 B. Article 17 C. Article 44 D. Article 45
98. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
A. There is no provision of referendum in the Indian Constitution
B. The State Legislatures do not possess the right to initiate the amendment of the Constitution
C. The proposal for amending the Constitution can only be initiated in Lok Sabha
D. The Indian Constitution is partly flexible and partly rigid
99. The Fundamental Rights imply the rights
A. which are indispensable for the growth of human personality
B. which a man inherits from nature at the time of his birth
C. which are enforced by the State
D. which impose no obligation on a State
100.Which one of the following is also known as Laissez Faire theory?
A. Individualism B. Socialism C. Idealism D. Utilitarianism
ANSWERS
1. C 2. B 3. C 4. C 5. A 6. C 7. C 8. D 9. D 10. A 11. D 12. A 13. C 14. B 15. A 16. D 17. A 18. D 19. B 20. D 21. C 22. C 23. C 24. C 25. B 26. C 27. A 28. B 29. B 30. A 31. A 32. D 33. C 34. A 35. C 36. C 37. C 38. C 39. C 40. B 41. C 42. D 43. B 44. D 45. B 46. D 47. B 48. B 49. B 50. D 51. C 52. B 53. C 54. A 55. C 56. B 57. C 58. A 59. D 60. D 61. B 62. B 63. B 64. A 65. D 66. C 67. D 68. B 69. D 70. C 71. C 72. A 73. A 74. C 75. C 76. C 77. B 78. C 79. B 80. C 81. A 82. B 83. C 84. A 85. A 86. B 87. C 88. A 89. D 90. D 91. A 92. C 93. B 94. C 95. C 96. B 97. B 98. C 99. A 100. A
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