Practice Test 01
1. Who administers the Oath of Office to the President?
A. The Chief Justice of India B. The Speaker
C. The Prime Minister D. The Vice President
2. Who has the authority to proclaim emergency in the States?
A. The Governor B. The Chief Minister C. The President D. The Prime Minister
3. Which of the following amendments relates to the Local Government Institutions?
A. 52nd Amendment B. 73rd Amendment C. 66th Amendment D. 70th Amendment
4. The real executive authority of the State is
A. the Governor B. the Speaker
C. the Council of Ministers D. the Chief Justice of High Court
5. The minimum age for being eligible to become the Prime Minister of India is
A. 21 years B. 25 years C. 30 years D. 35 years
6. When was the President’s Succession Act enacted?
A. 1955 B. 1959 C. 1964 D. 1969
7. Who enjoys the right to impose reasonable restrictions on the Fundamental Rights?
A. The President B. The Supreme Court C. The Parliament D. The Lok Sabha
8. How many times the President has declared the financial emergency?
A. Once B. Twice C. Thrice D. Never
9. Who decides the disputes regarding the election of the President?
A. The Speaker B. The Supreme Court C. The Election Commission D. The Parliament
10. How many seats are reserved for Union Territories in the Lok Sabha?
A. 10 seats B. 15 seats C. 20 seats D. 30 seats
11. Who is legally competent to declare war?
A. The President B. The Prime Minister C. The Lok Sabha D. The Parliament
12. What is the maximum age prescribed for election as President of India?
A. 58 years B. 60 years C. 62 years D. No such limit
13. The President of India can declare emergency
A. on his own B. on the recommendations of the Council of Ministers
C. on the recommendations of the Prime Minister
D. on the recommendations of the Parliament
14. The monthly salary of the Vice President of India is
A. Rs.75,000 B. Rs.100,000 C. Rs.150,000 D. Rs.125,000
15. Who has the right to convene the Joint Session of the two Houses of Parliament in India?
A. The Prime Minister B. The President C. The Vice President D. None of them
16. The chief source of political power in India is
A. the people B. the constitution C. the Parliament
D. the Parliament and the State Legislatures
17. The Prime Minister is the
A. Head of the State B. Head of the Government
C. Head of the State and the head of the Government D. None of these
18. A bill in each House is subject to
A. one reading B. two readings C. three readings D. four readings
19. Consider the Statements:
I. Supreme Court of India is the highest court of appeals
II. Supreme Court is the custodian of the Constitution
III. Supreme Court’s advice is binding on the President of India
IV. Supreme Court is empowered to appoing Judges of lower courts
A. I alone is correct B. I and II are correct
C. I, II and III are correct D. All are correct
20. The President of India is
A. the head of the Government B. the head of the State
C. the head of the Parliament D. the head of the Judiciary
21. The Chairman of the Planning Commission in India is
A. President B. Vice President C. Speaker D. Prime Minister
22. The modern State is described as
A. a police state B. a welfare state C. a laissez faire state D. autocratic state
23. Which of the following States does not have a bi-cameral legislature?
A. Bihar B. Karnataka C. Rajasthan D. Maharashtra
24. The Ordinances issued by the Governor are subject to approval by
A. the President B. the Chief Minister C. the Parliament D. the State Legislature
25. Can one person act as Governor for more than one State?
A. Yes B. No C. Only for three months D. Only for six months
26. Right to free education within certain limits is
A. guaranteed as a fundamental right
B. enshrined in the Directive Principles of State policy
C. outlined in the Preamble of the constitution D. ignored by constitution
27. Now Tamil Nadu has
A. Unicameral Legislature B. Bicameral Legislature
C. Tricameral Legislature D. None of the above
28. Select the correct sequence in ascending order.
A. Deputy Ministers, Ministers of State and Cabinet Ministers
B. Ministers of State, Deputy Ministers and Cabinet Ministers
C. Ministers of State, Cabinet Ministers and Deputy Ministers
D. Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State and Deputy Ministers
29. Vice President of India presides over
A. House of People B. Rajya Sabha C. Both A & B D. Union Cabinet
30. Which was the lengthiest amendment to the Constitution of India?
A. 24th Amendment B. 30th Amendment C. 42nd Amendment D. Union Cabinet
31. Money can be spent out of the Consolidated Fund of India with the approval of
A. the President B. Parliament
C. Comptroller and Auditor-General D. Finance Minister
32. Planning Commission is established by
A. The Cabinet resolution B. The Parliament resolution
C. The President D. The Prime Minister
33. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Rights and duties are the two sides of the same coin.
Reason (R): It is not the duty of the state to maintain the rights of the citizens.
Now select the answer according to the coding scheme given below:
A. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false D. (A) is false, but (R) is true
34. A bill for alteration of boundaries of States shall not be introduced in the Parliament without
the recommendation?
A. the presiding officers of both houses of parliament
B. the legislatures of the States concerned C. the Supreme Court D. the President
35. In a federal state
A. state are more powerful than the centre
B. centre is more powerful than states
C. a presidential form of government functions
D. constitution effects division of powers between the center and states with safeguards
against transgression of jurisdiction
36. Who holds the power of Judicial Review in India?
A. The President B. The Prime Minister C. Supreme Court D. The Parliament
37. Which of the following State Governors enjoys special powers with regard to the administration
of tribal areas?
A. Orissa B. Madhya Pradesh C. Bihar D. Assam
38. The Governor of a State
A. enjoys office for five years B. enjoys the confidence of the President
C. enjoys the confidence of the Chief Minister
D. enjoys the confidence of the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
39. Under what circumstances can some of the Fundamental Rights be suspended?
A. On the orders of a Court B. When President’s rule is imposed
C. When a proclamation of National Emergency is in operation
D. During financial emergency
40. Who among the following acts as the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha?
A. Vice President of India B. Speaker of Lok Sabha
C. One who is elected by the Members of Rajya Sabha
D. The leader of the party having the highest number of members in Rajya Sabha
41. Which one of the following is not matched correctly?
Scheduled in the
Indian Costitution Deals with
A. Ninth Schedule Provisions as to disqualification
on grounds of defection
B. Eighth Schedule Languages
C. Seventh Schedule Union, Sate and Concurrent
D. Fourth Schedule Allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha
42. Which one of the following statements is correct?
A. If both the President and the Vice President resign, the Speaker of Sabha will act as
President till a new President is elected.
B. The Constitution of India prescribes both the minimum and maximum age limits for
contesting the Presidential election
C. In the event of resignation of the President, the Vice-President will act as President for
the residual period of the President’s tenure as in the U.S.A.
D. In India, the President a part of Parliament
43. The most essential feature of the Parliamentary Form of Government is the
A. Sovereignty of Parliament B. Written Constitution
C. Accountability of the Executive to the Legislature D. Independence of the Judiciary
44. Which one of the following is true regarding the Vice Chairman of Rajya Sabha?
A. One has to be a member of Rajya Sabha for election to the post of Vice-Chairman
B. One need not necessarily be member of Rajya Sabha for election to the post of the Vice
Chairman, as is in the case of Chairman
C. One has to be a member of either House of Parliament for election to the post of Vice-
Chairman of Rajya Sabha
D. There is an established convention that the Vice Chairman of Rajya Sabha belongs to the
main Opposition Party in Rajya Sabha
45. Indian Constitution has been amended how many times since India became a Republic?
A. 75 times B. 76 times C. 100 times D. 80 times
46. Which one of the following first mooted the idea of a constituent assembly to frame a
Constitution for India?
A. Swaraj Party in 1934 B. Congress Party in 1936
C. Muslim League in 1942 D. All Parties Conference in 1946
47. When the Chief Justice of a High Court acts in an administrative capacity, he is subject to
A. the writ jurisdiction of any of the other judges of the High Court
B. special control exercised by the Chief Justice of India
C. discretionary powers of the Governor of the State
D. special powers provided to the Chief Minister in this regard
48. Consider the following statements:
No one can be compelled to sing the National Anthem, since
I. it will be violative of the Right to freedom of speech and expression
II. it will be violative of the Right to Freedom of Conscience and practise and propagation of
religion
III. there is no legal provision obliging any one to sing the National Anthem.
Of these statements
A. I and III are correct B. II and III are correct
C. I, II and III are correct D. None is correct
49. Which one of the following statements is correct?
The Prime Minister of India
A. is free to choose his ministers only from among those who are members of either House
of the Parliament
B.can choose his cabinet colleagues after due counselling by the President of India in this regard
C. has full discretion in the choice of persons who are to serve as minister in his cabinet
D. has only limited powers in the choice of his cabinet colleagues because of the discretion
ary power vested with the President of India
50. B.R.Ambedkar was elected to the Constituent Assembly from
A. West Bengal B. the Bombay Presidency C. the then Madhya Bharat D. Punjab
51. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (R): The word ‘minority’ is not defined in the Constitution of India.
Reason (R): The Minorities Commission is not a constitutional body.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true, but R is false D. A is false, but R is true
52. Which of the following statements is not true about the National Commission for Women?
A. The Commission was set up by an act of Parliament and started working in 1992
B. The Commission has decided to setup Maha Mahila Adalats across the country very soon
C. The Commission has recommended to amend the dowry Act, Hindu Marriage Act, and
Special Marriage Act and the Govt. has accepted the same
D. The Commission has powers to investigate and review functions of various law making
agencies in India
53. The Legislative Council in a state may be created or abolished by the
A. President, on the recommendation of the Governor B. Parliament
C. Parliament after the State Legislative Assembly passes a resolution to that effect
D. Governor on a recommendation by the State cabinet
54. In which case did the Supreme Court concede the right of Parliament to amend the Constitution,
but denied it the right to amend the basic structure of the Constitution?
A. Keshavananda Bharati Case B. Golak Nath Case
C. Minerva Mills Case D. None of these
55. On what ground, the Supreme Court of India can accept the appeal against any High Court Judgement?
A. It is the apex court of the country B. There is sufficient legal jurisdiction in it
C. That is the Fundamental Right of the person who appeals
D. Law Minister has recommended in the regard
56. When can a bill be referred to the Parliamentary Committee?
A. Just after being placed in the Parliament
B. After general debate/discussion in the second reading
C. After partial debate/discussion D. After difference between two houses
57. In what way the Finance Commission can recommend to the centre for transfer of resources
to States?
A. Debt, subside and tax share B. Debt and subsidy
C. Debt and tax share D. Subsidy and tax share
58. To uphold and protect the sovereignity, unity and integrity of India, a provision has been
made in the
A. Directive Principles of State Policy B. Preamable to the Constitution
C. Fundamental Duties D. Fundamental Rights
59. Which of the following are Financial Committee of Parliament in India?
I. Public Accounts Committee
II. Union Ministry of Finance
III. Committee of Public Undertakings
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
A. I and II B. I and III C. II and III D. I, II and III
60. Communal representation presupposes the existence of
A. a joint electorate B. separate electorates
C. reservation of seats D. there can be both joint as well as separate electorates
61. How do Directive Principles of State Policy differ from Fundamental Rights?
A. The former are meant for Central Government, whereas the latter are for the States
B. The former are not a part of the Constitution, whereas the latter are the part of the Constitution
C. The Directive Principles are not enforceable, whereas the Fundamental Rights are enforceable
D. None of these
62. The date of 26th January when India became a Rapublic with a new Constitution was
adopted, because
A. on that day in 1885, the Indian National Congress was founded
B. on that day in 1919, the Jallianwala Bagh tragedy took place
C. on the day in 1930, the Congress observed the Independence Day in the country
D. on that day in 1941, the Quit India Movement was started by Mahatma Gandhi
63. A federal system
A. must have a written costitution B. must have an unwritten constitution
C. may have either written or unwritten constitution D. may not have any constitution
64. Which Fundamental Right is concerned with abolition of social distinctions?
A. Right to equality B. Right against exploitation
C. Right to life and liberty D. Cultural and educational rights
65. Which part of the Constitution directs the State to establish Panchayati Raj Institution in the country?
A. The Preamble B. The Directive Principles of State Policy
C. The Fundamental Rights D. None of these
66. The Supreme Court of India consists of a Chief Justice and
A. 7 judges B. 9 judges C. 11 judges D. 25 judges
67. The phrase ‘procedure’ established by law’
A. gives immense powers in the hands of the courts regarding judicial review
B. limits the authority of the Indian Courts in the matter of judicial review and the courts
cannot go into the question as to whether a law is just or not
C. gives the authority to the courts to go into the question as to whether a law is just or not
D. None of these
68. What is the minimum duration of a stay necessary, before a person can apply for Indian
citizenship?
A. 5 years B. 3 years C. 7 years D. 10 years
69. Under the Indian Constitution, concentration of wealth violates
A. the concept of Welfare State B. Right to Equality
C. a Directive Principle D. the Right to Freedom
70. The 81st Constitutional Amendment Bill deals with
A. setting up of a Separate State of Uttarakhand
B. reservation for women in Parliament and State Legislatures
C. grant of greater attonomy for Jammu and Kashmir
D. relates to carrying forwards backlog vacancies of Scheduled castes and Scheduled tribes
71. To whom a case of dispute in the election of the President of india be referred?
A. Election Commission B. Parliament
C. Supreme Court of India D. Central Cabinet
72. Bills are normally introduced in the Parliament
A. during question hour B. during zero hour
C. soon after lunch break D. shortly before the House adjourns for the day
73. In India, with several characteristics of a Federal Government, the supremacy lies in
A. Constitution B. Parliament C. Supreme Court D. Bureaucracy
74. Which one of the Directive of Principles was not included in the Original Constitution, but
was added by the 42nd Amendment?
A. To create respect for Inter-National law B. To avoid concentration of wealth
C. To provide free legal aid D. To ensure equal wages for equal work
75. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India acts as the Chief Accountant and Auditor for the
A. Union Government B. State Governments
C. Union and State Governments D. Neither Union nor State Governments
76. The theory of Check and Balances is a unique feature of the
A. British Constitution B. Indian Constitution
C. American Constitution D. Japanese Constitution
77. To which of the following Bills, the President must accord his sanction whithout sending it
back for reconsideration?
A. Ordinary Bills B. Money Bills
C. Bills passed by both the Houses of Parliament
D. Bills seeking amendment to the Constitution
78. One of the chief defects of Universal Adult Franchise is
A. it gives chance to a common man to be associated with the decisions of the government
B. it protects the rights of minorities C. it leads to rule by ignorants
C. it lays emphasis on the principle of equality
79. Which one of the following sets of special powers have been conferred on Rajya Sabha by
the Constitution?
A. To change the existing territory of a State and to change the name of a State
B. To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and
creation of one or more All-India Services
C. To amend the elction procedure of the President and to determine the pension of the
President after his retirement
D. To determine the functions of the Election Commission and to determine the number of
Election Commissioners
80. Article 356 of the Constitution of India deals with
A. autonomy of States B. the proclamation of President’s Rule in a State
C. the removal of a Chief Minister D. the appointment of a Governor
81. In which of the following situations does the President act in his own discretion?
A. In appointing the Prime Minister
B. In returning a proposal to the Council of Ministers for reconsideration
C. Both of these D. None of these
82. To whom should the President of India address the letter of his resignation?
A. The Prime Minister of India B. The Chief Justice of India
C. The Speaker of Lok Sabha D. The Vice-President of India
83. 93rd Constitution Amendment Bill seeks
A. to grant statehood to Uttaranchal B. to make elementary education compulsory
C. to make army service mandatory D. None of these
84. Which one of the following right was considered the “Heart and Soul” of the Constitution by
Dr.Ambedkar?
A. Freedom of Speech B. Right to Constitutional Remedies
C. Right to Equality D. Right to Freedom of Religion
85. Consider the following statements regarding the Attorney General of India:
I. There is no age limit his appointment
II. He can be a member of a Parliamentary Committee
III. He Shall have the right of audience in all the courts
IV. The term of his office is fixed by the Constitution of India
Of the statements
A. I and II are correct B. I, II and III are correct
C. II, III and IV are correct D. III and IV are correct
86. The Prime Minister of India resigns when he does not command majority in the Lower
House of Parliament is
A. in accordance with a stipulation in the Constitution
B. not explicitly state in the Constitution but followed as a convention
C. peculiar to Indian democracy
D. a legacy of the Government of India Act, 1919
87. Which of the following pairs of Articles of the Constitution of India and the subjects dealt
with by them are correctly matched?
I. Article 352 Proclamation of emergency
II. Article 370 Special status in respect of Jammu and Kashmir
III. Article 14 Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
IV. Article 40 Organisation of Village Panchayats
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
A. I and II B. II, III and IV C. I, II and IV D. I, III and IV
88. Which one of the following is an example of extra-constitutional power of the Governor of
a State in India?
A. His role as Chancellor or the Universities in the State
B. His power to dismiss the ministry
C. His power to dissolve the State Legislative Assembly
D. His power to return a Bill to the State Legislative Assembly for reconsideration
89. If the Prime Minister of India belonged to the Upper House of Parliament
A. he will not be able to vote in his favour in the event of a no-confidence motion
B. he will not be able to speak on the Budget in the Lower House
C. he can make statements only on the Upper House
D. he has become a member of the Lower House within six months after being sworn-in as
the Prime Minister
90. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R)
Assertion (A) : The reservation of thirty-three per cent of seats for women in Parliament
and State Legislatures does not require Constitutional amendment
Reason (R) : Political parties contesting elections can allocate thirty-three per cent
of seats they contest to women candidates without any Constitutional
amendment
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
A. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false D. (A) is false, but (R) is true
91. Which one of the following is/are stated in the Constitution of India?
I. The President shall not be member of either House of Parliament
II. The Parliament shall consist of the President and two Houses
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
A. Neither I nor II B. Both I and II C. I alone D. II alone
92. Consider the following two statements
Assertion A) : The Rajya Sabha under Article 312 is empowered to create new all-
India service in national interest.
Reason (R) : The Rajya Sabha can define national interest better.
A. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) is true, but (R) is false
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false D. (A) is false, but (R) is true
93. In the following quotation, “WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute
India into a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic and to secure to all its citizens:
JUSTICE, social, economic and political;
LIBERTY of thought; expression, belief, faith and worship;
EQUALITY of status and of opportunity;
and to promote among them all;
FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation;
In our Constituent Assembly this ‘X’... do hereby adopt, enact and give to ourselves this
Constitution.” ‘X’ stands for
A. twenty-sixth day of January, 1950 B. twenty-sixth day of November, 1949
C. twenty-sixth day of January, 1949 D. None of these
94. The Constitution of India is
A. unitary B. perfectly federal
C. federal with a strong centralising tendency D. confederal
95. Consider the following Statements
Assertion (A) : Democracy renders minority ineffective ensures the tyranny of the
majority
Reason (R) : For all practical purposes, democracy means rule by the majority
Of these statements
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true, but R is the correct explanation of A
C. A is true, but R is false D. A is false, but R is true
96. Match List I (Schedule to the Constitution of India) with List II (Subject dealt with by the
Schedule) and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
I. First a. Territorial extent of Indian States and Union Territories
II. Eighth b. Languages
III. Ninth c. Validation of Acts/Regulations passed by the State Legislature
IV. Tenth d. Disqualification on grounds of defection of members of the House
I II III IV
A. b a d c
B. a b d c
C. b a c d
D. a b c d
97. The day-to-day administration of a Union Territory in India is looked after by a
A. Council of Ministers B. Lt. Governor
C. Governor D. The President
98. Which one of the following parts of the Indian Constitution enjoins upon the State “to provide
free and compulsory education for children upto 14 years of age”?
A. Directive Principles of State Policy B. Fundamental Rights
C. Fundamental Duties D. Special Provisions related to certain classes
99. Which of the following Commission has been given a statutory status by the Central Government?
A. Central Water Commission B. Central Vigilance Commission
C. National Human Rights Commission D. None of these
100.To enable the scheduled cases and scheduled tribes to avail themselves of benefits of the
preferential right conferred on them by the Constitution, the President of India notifies them
as such under
A. Articles 339 and 340 B. Articles 340 and 341
C. Articles 341 and 342 D. Articles 342 and 343
ANSWERS
1. A 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. B 6. A 7. A 8. D 9. B 10. B 11. A 12. D 13. B 14. D 15. B 16. A 17. B 18. C 19. B 20. B 21. D 22. B 23. C 24. D 25. A 26. B 27. A 28. A 29. B 30. C 31. B 32. A 33. C 34. B 35. A 36. C 37. D 38. A 39. C 40. C 41. D 42. D 43. A 44. A 45. C 46. A 47. B 48. C 49. C 50. B 51. B 52. A 53. C 54. A 55. B 56. B 57. D 58. C 59. A 60. B 61. C 62. C 63. A 64. A 65. B 66. D 67. B 68. A 69. C 70. D 71. C 72. C 73. A 74. C 75. C 76. C 77. B 78. C 79. B 80. B 81. B 82. D 83. B 84. B 85. B 86. A 87. C 88. A 89. A 90. D 91. B 92. C 93. B 94. C 95. A 96. D 97. B 98. A 99. B 100. C
1. Who administers the Oath of Office to the President?
A. The Chief Justice of India B. The Speaker
C. The Prime Minister D. The Vice President
2. Who has the authority to proclaim emergency in the States?
A. The Governor B. The Chief Minister C. The President D. The Prime Minister
3. Which of the following amendments relates to the Local Government Institutions?
A. 52nd Amendment B. 73rd Amendment C. 66th Amendment D. 70th Amendment
4. The real executive authority of the State is
A. the Governor B. the Speaker
C. the Council of Ministers D. the Chief Justice of High Court
5. The minimum age for being eligible to become the Prime Minister of India is
A. 21 years B. 25 years C. 30 years D. 35 years
6. When was the President’s Succession Act enacted?
A. 1955 B. 1959 C. 1964 D. 1969
7. Who enjoys the right to impose reasonable restrictions on the Fundamental Rights?
A. The President B. The Supreme Court C. The Parliament D. The Lok Sabha
8. How many times the President has declared the financial emergency?
A. Once B. Twice C. Thrice D. Never
9. Who decides the disputes regarding the election of the President?
A. The Speaker B. The Supreme Court C. The Election Commission D. The Parliament
10. How many seats are reserved for Union Territories in the Lok Sabha?
A. 10 seats B. 15 seats C. 20 seats D. 30 seats
11. Who is legally competent to declare war?
A. The President B. The Prime Minister C. The Lok Sabha D. The Parliament
12. What is the maximum age prescribed for election as President of India?
A. 58 years B. 60 years C. 62 years D. No such limit
13. The President of India can declare emergency
A. on his own B. on the recommendations of the Council of Ministers
C. on the recommendations of the Prime Minister
D. on the recommendations of the Parliament
14. The monthly salary of the Vice President of India is
A. Rs.75,000 B. Rs.100,000 C. Rs.150,000 D. Rs.125,000
15. Who has the right to convene the Joint Session of the two Houses of Parliament in India?
A. The Prime Minister B. The President C. The Vice President D. None of them
16. The chief source of political power in India is
A. the people B. the constitution C. the Parliament
D. the Parliament and the State Legislatures
17. The Prime Minister is the
A. Head of the State B. Head of the Government
C. Head of the State and the head of the Government D. None of these
18. A bill in each House is subject to
A. one reading B. two readings C. three readings D. four readings
19. Consider the Statements:
I. Supreme Court of India is the highest court of appeals
II. Supreme Court is the custodian of the Constitution
III. Supreme Court’s advice is binding on the President of India
IV. Supreme Court is empowered to appoing Judges of lower courts
A. I alone is correct B. I and II are correct
C. I, II and III are correct D. All are correct
20. The President of India is
A. the head of the Government B. the head of the State
C. the head of the Parliament D. the head of the Judiciary
21. The Chairman of the Planning Commission in India is
A. President B. Vice President C. Speaker D. Prime Minister
22. The modern State is described as
A. a police state B. a welfare state C. a laissez faire state D. autocratic state
23. Which of the following States does not have a bi-cameral legislature?
A. Bihar B. Karnataka C. Rajasthan D. Maharashtra
24. The Ordinances issued by the Governor are subject to approval by
A. the President B. the Chief Minister C. the Parliament D. the State Legislature
25. Can one person act as Governor for more than one State?
A. Yes B. No C. Only for three months D. Only for six months
26. Right to free education within certain limits is
A. guaranteed as a fundamental right
B. enshrined in the Directive Principles of State policy
C. outlined in the Preamble of the constitution D. ignored by constitution
27. Now Tamil Nadu has
A. Unicameral Legislature B. Bicameral Legislature
C. Tricameral Legislature D. None of the above
28. Select the correct sequence in ascending order.
A. Deputy Ministers, Ministers of State and Cabinet Ministers
B. Ministers of State, Deputy Ministers and Cabinet Ministers
C. Ministers of State, Cabinet Ministers and Deputy Ministers
D. Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State and Deputy Ministers
29. Vice President of India presides over
A. House of People B. Rajya Sabha C. Both A & B D. Union Cabinet
30. Which was the lengthiest amendment to the Constitution of India?
A. 24th Amendment B. 30th Amendment C. 42nd Amendment D. Union Cabinet
31. Money can be spent out of the Consolidated Fund of India with the approval of
A. the President B. Parliament
C. Comptroller and Auditor-General D. Finance Minister
32. Planning Commission is established by
A. The Cabinet resolution B. The Parliament resolution
C. The President D. The Prime Minister
33. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Rights and duties are the two sides of the same coin.
Reason (R): It is not the duty of the state to maintain the rights of the citizens.
Now select the answer according to the coding scheme given below:
A. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false D. (A) is false, but (R) is true
34. A bill for alteration of boundaries of States shall not be introduced in the Parliament without
the recommendation?
A. the presiding officers of both houses of parliament
B. the legislatures of the States concerned C. the Supreme Court D. the President
35. In a federal state
A. state are more powerful than the centre
B. centre is more powerful than states
C. a presidential form of government functions
D. constitution effects division of powers between the center and states with safeguards
against transgression of jurisdiction
36. Who holds the power of Judicial Review in India?
A. The President B. The Prime Minister C. Supreme Court D. The Parliament
37. Which of the following State Governors enjoys special powers with regard to the administration
of tribal areas?
A. Orissa B. Madhya Pradesh C. Bihar D. Assam
38. The Governor of a State
A. enjoys office for five years B. enjoys the confidence of the President
C. enjoys the confidence of the Chief Minister
D. enjoys the confidence of the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
39. Under what circumstances can some of the Fundamental Rights be suspended?
A. On the orders of a Court B. When President’s rule is imposed
C. When a proclamation of National Emergency is in operation
D. During financial emergency
40. Who among the following acts as the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha?
A. Vice President of India B. Speaker of Lok Sabha
C. One who is elected by the Members of Rajya Sabha
D. The leader of the party having the highest number of members in Rajya Sabha
41. Which one of the following is not matched correctly?
Scheduled in the
Indian Costitution Deals with
A. Ninth Schedule Provisions as to disqualification
on grounds of defection
B. Eighth Schedule Languages
C. Seventh Schedule Union, Sate and Concurrent
D. Fourth Schedule Allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha
42. Which one of the following statements is correct?
A. If both the President and the Vice President resign, the Speaker of Sabha will act as
President till a new President is elected.
B. The Constitution of India prescribes both the minimum and maximum age limits for
contesting the Presidential election
C. In the event of resignation of the President, the Vice-President will act as President for
the residual period of the President’s tenure as in the U.S.A.
D. In India, the President a part of Parliament
43. The most essential feature of the Parliamentary Form of Government is the
A. Sovereignty of Parliament B. Written Constitution
C. Accountability of the Executive to the Legislature D. Independence of the Judiciary
44. Which one of the following is true regarding the Vice Chairman of Rajya Sabha?
A. One has to be a member of Rajya Sabha for election to the post of Vice-Chairman
B. One need not necessarily be member of Rajya Sabha for election to the post of the Vice
Chairman, as is in the case of Chairman
C. One has to be a member of either House of Parliament for election to the post of Vice-
Chairman of Rajya Sabha
D. There is an established convention that the Vice Chairman of Rajya Sabha belongs to the
main Opposition Party in Rajya Sabha
45. Indian Constitution has been amended how many times since India became a Republic?
A. 75 times B. 76 times C. 100 times D. 80 times
46. Which one of the following first mooted the idea of a constituent assembly to frame a
Constitution for India?
A. Swaraj Party in 1934 B. Congress Party in 1936
C. Muslim League in 1942 D. All Parties Conference in 1946
47. When the Chief Justice of a High Court acts in an administrative capacity, he is subject to
A. the writ jurisdiction of any of the other judges of the High Court
B. special control exercised by the Chief Justice of India
C. discretionary powers of the Governor of the State
D. special powers provided to the Chief Minister in this regard
48. Consider the following statements:
No one can be compelled to sing the National Anthem, since
I. it will be violative of the Right to freedom of speech and expression
II. it will be violative of the Right to Freedom of Conscience and practise and propagation of
religion
III. there is no legal provision obliging any one to sing the National Anthem.
Of these statements
A. I and III are correct B. II and III are correct
C. I, II and III are correct D. None is correct
49. Which one of the following statements is correct?
The Prime Minister of India
A. is free to choose his ministers only from among those who are members of either House
of the Parliament
B.can choose his cabinet colleagues after due counselling by the President of India in this regard
C. has full discretion in the choice of persons who are to serve as minister in his cabinet
D. has only limited powers in the choice of his cabinet colleagues because of the discretion
ary power vested with the President of India
50. B.R.Ambedkar was elected to the Constituent Assembly from
A. West Bengal B. the Bombay Presidency C. the then Madhya Bharat D. Punjab
51. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (R): The word ‘minority’ is not defined in the Constitution of India.
Reason (R): The Minorities Commission is not a constitutional body.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true, but R is false D. A is false, but R is true
52. Which of the following statements is not true about the National Commission for Women?
A. The Commission was set up by an act of Parliament and started working in 1992
B. The Commission has decided to setup Maha Mahila Adalats across the country very soon
C. The Commission has recommended to amend the dowry Act, Hindu Marriage Act, and
Special Marriage Act and the Govt. has accepted the same
D. The Commission has powers to investigate and review functions of various law making
agencies in India
53. The Legislative Council in a state may be created or abolished by the
A. President, on the recommendation of the Governor B. Parliament
C. Parliament after the State Legislative Assembly passes a resolution to that effect
D. Governor on a recommendation by the State cabinet
54. In which case did the Supreme Court concede the right of Parliament to amend the Constitution,
but denied it the right to amend the basic structure of the Constitution?
A. Keshavananda Bharati Case B. Golak Nath Case
C. Minerva Mills Case D. None of these
55. On what ground, the Supreme Court of India can accept the appeal against any High Court Judgement?
A. It is the apex court of the country B. There is sufficient legal jurisdiction in it
C. That is the Fundamental Right of the person who appeals
D. Law Minister has recommended in the regard
56. When can a bill be referred to the Parliamentary Committee?
A. Just after being placed in the Parliament
B. After general debate/discussion in the second reading
C. After partial debate/discussion D. After difference between two houses
57. In what way the Finance Commission can recommend to the centre for transfer of resources
to States?
A. Debt, subside and tax share B. Debt and subsidy
C. Debt and tax share D. Subsidy and tax share
58. To uphold and protect the sovereignity, unity and integrity of India, a provision has been
made in the
A. Directive Principles of State Policy B. Preamable to the Constitution
C. Fundamental Duties D. Fundamental Rights
59. Which of the following are Financial Committee of Parliament in India?
I. Public Accounts Committee
II. Union Ministry of Finance
III. Committee of Public Undertakings
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
A. I and II B. I and III C. II and III D. I, II and III
60. Communal representation presupposes the existence of
A. a joint electorate B. separate electorates
C. reservation of seats D. there can be both joint as well as separate electorates
61. How do Directive Principles of State Policy differ from Fundamental Rights?
A. The former are meant for Central Government, whereas the latter are for the States
B. The former are not a part of the Constitution, whereas the latter are the part of the Constitution
C. The Directive Principles are not enforceable, whereas the Fundamental Rights are enforceable
D. None of these
62. The date of 26th January when India became a Rapublic with a new Constitution was
adopted, because
A. on that day in 1885, the Indian National Congress was founded
B. on that day in 1919, the Jallianwala Bagh tragedy took place
C. on the day in 1930, the Congress observed the Independence Day in the country
D. on that day in 1941, the Quit India Movement was started by Mahatma Gandhi
63. A federal system
A. must have a written costitution B. must have an unwritten constitution
C. may have either written or unwritten constitution D. may not have any constitution
64. Which Fundamental Right is concerned with abolition of social distinctions?
A. Right to equality B. Right against exploitation
C. Right to life and liberty D. Cultural and educational rights
65. Which part of the Constitution directs the State to establish Panchayati Raj Institution in the country?
A. The Preamble B. The Directive Principles of State Policy
C. The Fundamental Rights D. None of these
66. The Supreme Court of India consists of a Chief Justice and
A. 7 judges B. 9 judges C. 11 judges D. 25 judges
67. The phrase ‘procedure’ established by law’
A. gives immense powers in the hands of the courts regarding judicial review
B. limits the authority of the Indian Courts in the matter of judicial review and the courts
cannot go into the question as to whether a law is just or not
C. gives the authority to the courts to go into the question as to whether a law is just or not
D. None of these
68. What is the minimum duration of a stay necessary, before a person can apply for Indian
citizenship?
A. 5 years B. 3 years C. 7 years D. 10 years
69. Under the Indian Constitution, concentration of wealth violates
A. the concept of Welfare State B. Right to Equality
C. a Directive Principle D. the Right to Freedom
70. The 81st Constitutional Amendment Bill deals with
A. setting up of a Separate State of Uttarakhand
B. reservation for women in Parliament and State Legislatures
C. grant of greater attonomy for Jammu and Kashmir
D. relates to carrying forwards backlog vacancies of Scheduled castes and Scheduled tribes
71. To whom a case of dispute in the election of the President of india be referred?
A. Election Commission B. Parliament
C. Supreme Court of India D. Central Cabinet
72. Bills are normally introduced in the Parliament
A. during question hour B. during zero hour
C. soon after lunch break D. shortly before the House adjourns for the day
73. In India, with several characteristics of a Federal Government, the supremacy lies in
A. Constitution B. Parliament C. Supreme Court D. Bureaucracy
74. Which one of the Directive of Principles was not included in the Original Constitution, but
was added by the 42nd Amendment?
A. To create respect for Inter-National law B. To avoid concentration of wealth
C. To provide free legal aid D. To ensure equal wages for equal work
75. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India acts as the Chief Accountant and Auditor for the
A. Union Government B. State Governments
C. Union and State Governments D. Neither Union nor State Governments
76. The theory of Check and Balances is a unique feature of the
A. British Constitution B. Indian Constitution
C. American Constitution D. Japanese Constitution
77. To which of the following Bills, the President must accord his sanction whithout sending it
back for reconsideration?
A. Ordinary Bills B. Money Bills
C. Bills passed by both the Houses of Parliament
D. Bills seeking amendment to the Constitution
78. One of the chief defects of Universal Adult Franchise is
A. it gives chance to a common man to be associated with the decisions of the government
B. it protects the rights of minorities C. it leads to rule by ignorants
C. it lays emphasis on the principle of equality
79. Which one of the following sets of special powers have been conferred on Rajya Sabha by
the Constitution?
A. To change the existing territory of a State and to change the name of a State
B. To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and
creation of one or more All-India Services
C. To amend the elction procedure of the President and to determine the pension of the
President after his retirement
D. To determine the functions of the Election Commission and to determine the number of
Election Commissioners
80. Article 356 of the Constitution of India deals with
A. autonomy of States B. the proclamation of President’s Rule in a State
C. the removal of a Chief Minister D. the appointment of a Governor
81. In which of the following situations does the President act in his own discretion?
A. In appointing the Prime Minister
B. In returning a proposal to the Council of Ministers for reconsideration
C. Both of these D. None of these
82. To whom should the President of India address the letter of his resignation?
A. The Prime Minister of India B. The Chief Justice of India
C. The Speaker of Lok Sabha D. The Vice-President of India
83. 93rd Constitution Amendment Bill seeks
A. to grant statehood to Uttaranchal B. to make elementary education compulsory
C. to make army service mandatory D. None of these
84. Which one of the following right was considered the “Heart and Soul” of the Constitution by
Dr.Ambedkar?
A. Freedom of Speech B. Right to Constitutional Remedies
C. Right to Equality D. Right to Freedom of Religion
85. Consider the following statements regarding the Attorney General of India:
I. There is no age limit his appointment
II. He can be a member of a Parliamentary Committee
III. He Shall have the right of audience in all the courts
IV. The term of his office is fixed by the Constitution of India
Of the statements
A. I and II are correct B. I, II and III are correct
C. II, III and IV are correct D. III and IV are correct
86. The Prime Minister of India resigns when he does not command majority in the Lower
House of Parliament is
A. in accordance with a stipulation in the Constitution
B. not explicitly state in the Constitution but followed as a convention
C. peculiar to Indian democracy
D. a legacy of the Government of India Act, 1919
87. Which of the following pairs of Articles of the Constitution of India and the subjects dealt
with by them are correctly matched?
I. Article 352 Proclamation of emergency
II. Article 370 Special status in respect of Jammu and Kashmir
III. Article 14 Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
IV. Article 40 Organisation of Village Panchayats
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
A. I and II B. II, III and IV C. I, II and IV D. I, III and IV
88. Which one of the following is an example of extra-constitutional power of the Governor of
a State in India?
A. His role as Chancellor or the Universities in the State
B. His power to dismiss the ministry
C. His power to dissolve the State Legislative Assembly
D. His power to return a Bill to the State Legislative Assembly for reconsideration
89. If the Prime Minister of India belonged to the Upper House of Parliament
A. he will not be able to vote in his favour in the event of a no-confidence motion
B. he will not be able to speak on the Budget in the Lower House
C. he can make statements only on the Upper House
D. he has become a member of the Lower House within six months after being sworn-in as
the Prime Minister
90. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R)
Assertion (A) : The reservation of thirty-three per cent of seats for women in Parliament
and State Legislatures does not require Constitutional amendment
Reason (R) : Political parties contesting elections can allocate thirty-three per cent
of seats they contest to women candidates without any Constitutional
amendment
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
A. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false D. (A) is false, but (R) is true
91. Which one of the following is/are stated in the Constitution of India?
I. The President shall not be member of either House of Parliament
II. The Parliament shall consist of the President and two Houses
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
A. Neither I nor II B. Both I and II C. I alone D. II alone
92. Consider the following two statements
Assertion A) : The Rajya Sabha under Article 312 is empowered to create new all-
India service in national interest.
Reason (R) : The Rajya Sabha can define national interest better.
A. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) is true, but (R) is false
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false D. (A) is false, but (R) is true
93. In the following quotation, “WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute
India into a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic and to secure to all its citizens:
JUSTICE, social, economic and political;
LIBERTY of thought; expression, belief, faith and worship;
EQUALITY of status and of opportunity;
and to promote among them all;
FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation;
In our Constituent Assembly this ‘X’... do hereby adopt, enact and give to ourselves this
Constitution.” ‘X’ stands for
A. twenty-sixth day of January, 1950 B. twenty-sixth day of November, 1949
C. twenty-sixth day of January, 1949 D. None of these
94. The Constitution of India is
A. unitary B. perfectly federal
C. federal with a strong centralising tendency D. confederal
95. Consider the following Statements
Assertion (A) : Democracy renders minority ineffective ensures the tyranny of the
majority
Reason (R) : For all practical purposes, democracy means rule by the majority
Of these statements
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true, but R is the correct explanation of A
C. A is true, but R is false D. A is false, but R is true
96. Match List I (Schedule to the Constitution of India) with List II (Subject dealt with by the
Schedule) and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
I. First a. Territorial extent of Indian States and Union Territories
II. Eighth b. Languages
III. Ninth c. Validation of Acts/Regulations passed by the State Legislature
IV. Tenth d. Disqualification on grounds of defection of members of the House
I II III IV
A. b a d c
B. a b d c
C. b a c d
D. a b c d
97. The day-to-day administration of a Union Territory in India is looked after by a
A. Council of Ministers B. Lt. Governor
C. Governor D. The President
98. Which one of the following parts of the Indian Constitution enjoins upon the State “to provide
free and compulsory education for children upto 14 years of age”?
A. Directive Principles of State Policy B. Fundamental Rights
C. Fundamental Duties D. Special Provisions related to certain classes
99. Which of the following Commission has been given a statutory status by the Central Government?
A. Central Water Commission B. Central Vigilance Commission
C. National Human Rights Commission D. None of these
100.To enable the scheduled cases and scheduled tribes to avail themselves of benefits of the
preferential right conferred on them by the Constitution, the President of India notifies them
as such under
A. Articles 339 and 340 B. Articles 340 and 341
C. Articles 341 and 342 D. Articles 342 and 343
ANSWERS
1. A 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. B 6. A 7. A 8. D 9. B 10. B 11. A 12. D 13. B 14. D 15. B 16. A 17. B 18. C 19. B 20. B 21. D 22. B 23. C 24. D 25. A 26. B 27. A 28. A 29. B 30. C 31. B 32. A 33. C 34. B 35. A 36. C 37. D 38. A 39. C 40. C 41. D 42. D 43. A 44. A 45. C 46. A 47. B 48. C 49. C 50. B 51. B 52. A 53. C 54. A 55. B 56. B 57. D 58. C 59. A 60. B 61. C 62. C 63. A 64. A 65. B 66. D 67. B 68. A 69. C 70. D 71. C 72. C 73. A 74. C 75. C 76. C 77. B 78. C 79. B 80. B 81. B 82. D 83. B 84. B 85. B 86. A 87. C 88. A 89. A 90. D 91. B 92. C 93. B 94. C 95. A 96. D 97. B 98. A 99. B 100. C
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